Is the “developed over time through scholastic effort” part really a prerequisite before a widespread pattern of speach can be considered a language or a legitimate dialect?
I forget, is it spelled Labor or Labour?
Earlier you misconstrued my post as an attempt to equate Ebonics with a foreign language, but here you seem to be doing exactly that. Just to clarify: my post was intended to hilight the differences between foreign languages and Ebonics and the possibility that a switch from Ebonics to SAE is more challenging due to psychological factors. To paraphrase myself, a German speaker will be more comfortable adapting to SAE because he need not first accept that German is an inferior language (or an inferior non-language, as the case may be).
Sometimes they can, but you’re right in that they are much less effective.
Can variations in dialect be used as a tool to teach SAE? If so, can variations in dialect be used in such a way while simultaneously holding out that they are not a legitimate way of speaking in and of themselves?
Can you elaborate on how it is not culturally bound, but it is culturally binding? Are you saying that SAE adapts to include many cultures, who in turn adapt themselves to it, thus binding the cultures to each other?
The challenge to cultural identity and the insult can be found in turns of phrase such as “Ebonics represents a fractured form of language found in every country. All societies have impoverished regions where the population speaks a degraded form of the official language.” (you) and “it is difficult to see how one could benefit by learning the preferred dialect of illiterates.” (Dave Gibson). I admit the two quotes are miles apart, but they both make the same point. The “language of the Black Man” is no language at all, in fact it’s just a fool’s attempt at speaking the “real” English. I, too, can understand how some might take offense.
How do you propose to teach SAE from day one when people start learning language long before they ever make it into a classroom?