In this staff report Dex gives the etymology of angle as
This is not correct. I doubt if there’s a single English word that comes from Sanskrit by way of Greek. Merriam-Webster gives the derivation as being from Greek and nothing at all about Sanskrit. Perhaps some other dictionary mentions the Sanskrit word, but almost certainly only as a cognate, not as the actual source.
I have fixed the link. – CKDH
Here is what the Concise Oxford Dictionary has to say:
Hmm - no Sanskrit there. Oh how I wish I had the real enormous O.E.D.
“Aggelos” (in Greek, “gg” is pronounced like “ng” in “finger”) is certainly the source. Around the time of Christ, the entire Mediterranean world spoke Greek, the way all the world speaks English today. Greek was the language of most Jews outside of Judea, and “aggelos” was already the established translation of Hebrew “malak”. Naturally, Greek became the language of the primitive Church. (The Roman Empire was new; it was only several centuries later that Latin became Top Language, and only in the West.)
The large OED says nothing about Sanskrit. In theory, since Sanskrit was still spoken in Alexander’s time, the word could have gotten into Greek that way, but my Abridged Liddel and Scott gives “aggelos” and many related words separate dialectal forms, which would be unlikely for a word so late. It also lists “aggaros” as a Persian word adopted into Greek, referring to a member of the Persian mounted courier service (the famous US Post Office motto derives from Herodotus’ description of these men), so I suspect this is a root widespread through the eastern Indo-European languages.
I think dtilque’s link to Dex’s column doesn’t work.
An active link is here
All of my references agree that Sanskrit just doesn’t enter into the picture.
Sigh. I just took it from one of my sources, and didn’t check it separately. I suspect that it would have been better to say that there is a similar word in Sanskrit and in Greek, rather than implying that the Greek came from the Sanskrit.