Forgive me; the search function gives less than helpful results.
Is there concensus on the origin of the phrase “upper crust” refering to the high levels of society. I know that some sites I see on the web indicate earliest use about 1836, but don’t seem to indicate how the use got started. I did find one web site (search for the word “upper”) where textual support for the possibility of the term relating to how bread was served is mentioned.
Any help?
This might help, although it doesn’t provide a full answer (never expect these from etymological questions!). Googling with inverted commas around terms such as ‘upper crust’ can help a lot.
If recent programs on UK TV History are to be believed, then it’s a reference to those who were served the upper parts of bread loaves, as the bottom of the loaf would have burnt bits. IIRC on the TV show they sliced the bottom off and cut the rest of the loaf in three. The servants got the bottom bit.
They’re a load of crumbs held together by dough.
While the origin of the term seems clear, the metaphorical use is probably not that complicated.
While I like Evan’s answer, his referring to “Bryson” sets off alarm bells in my mind.
I’m sure he’s probably right, but I’ll search a few things and be back.
And indeed, Evan Morris’ answer is correct, as per Exapno.
Snopes indicates that it’s true (on an article about
Snopes indicates it’s true, on an article debunking other language myths.
Well, here’s where Barbara(snopes) and I part ways.
She relied on Robert Hendrickson’s mis-interpretation of the OED cite for the bread meaning.
Hendrickson[Word and Phrase Origins) is one of the worst books you can use for word origins. Don’t ever trust anything you read in his book.
The useage in the 1460 cite was only about a loaf of bread. There was never a follow-up cite that has been found before the early 1800’s in the US that would indicate it meant anything to do with class.
samclem, what about the text I referenced in the OP?
The cite is from The Boke of Keruynge (Book of Carving) [1508], by Wynken de Worde
The phrase is attested as early as 1898 from E. Cobham Brewer’s Dictionary of Phrase and Fable.
My problem is that all the hits I get against the phrase - all of 5 - come back to that same source quoting the book rather than to the book itself. I can’t find a copy of the book online in a quick search.
However, the book may even be the same as the 1460 source. Amazon UK says, weirdly truncated:
I’d like more info, but this is perhaps a false sighting. Or citing, either one.