Okay, I had to ask because with all the publicity surrounding Viagra and the constant stream of testimonials from men and their female partners, I haven’t heard anything from the gay community regarding the problems of impotence.
When googling, I’ve failed to come up with anything relevant regarding homosexual impotence. Am I onto something here? Could impotence among heteros merely be a sign of misorientation while gays have listened to themselves correctly?
But the first question is " Is impotence as prevalent in the gay community as much as it is among the hetero male community?"
well see, if your hypothesis were true (simply misplaced sexual orientation) then viagra wouldnt work.
why? simple, all viarga does is increase the flow of blood in the body thus allowing men who have poor blood flow (in otherwords cant get hard) to allow the blood to engorge the penis and become hard.
viagra doesnt really cause arousal it simply ‘allows’ men to get rigid. Kinda like how eating protien doesnt cause you to build muscle but it allows it to beome easier.
" Is impotence as prevalent in the gay community as much as it is among the hetero male community?"
Yes. The physiological and (sometimes) psychological causal factors are exactly the same. You may hear less about it because the Viagra people aren’t really anxious to see their golden…er, goose…connected to a minority that many Americans still feel “funny” about.
Rates of impotence among healthy gay men are roughly the same as the rates among those of healthy straight men, according to the only study I was able to find. In case you “wondered but were afraid to ask”*, “bottoms” are no more or less likely to develop prostate cancer than straight peers either.
“Viagra Abuse” seems to be more common among gay men, though, according to one study.
*(don’t EVER quote the book of that title to a gay man if you don’t want to get into a screaming match- it’s probably the most homophobic piece of crap ever written not to be published by a church)