I saw this point raised a few months ago on a TV show and thought it might make for an interesting debate here (unless perhaps it’s been done already and I missed it?)
I’m going to use North Korea as a concrete example. One might quibble with the details here, but even if you think this isn’t a good example, the question can be abstracted and asked in the general sense.
The People’s Republic of NK has a seemingly perpetual problem with feeding their population. This is a legimate humanitarian disaster: there are millions starving, trying to live from eating tree bark and insects, and so on. It’s not pretty.
The PRNK is asking for outside humanitarian assistance, inviting reporters in to see how bad it is, etc.
On the other hand, the PRNK spends, by most estimates, about 30% (+/- a few %) of its GNP on its military. This is quite atypical. In comparision, South Korea spends about 3.2%. The USA is 3.4%. Canada is 1.2%. UK is 2.5%. Most countries, rich and poor alike, seem to spend between 1 and 5% of their GNP on a military.
It seems that the PRNK could, if it reduced it’s military expenditure to be in line, %-wise, with other nations, come pretty close to feeding its people. Depending on the exact numbers you use, it would have perhaps $275 to spend per capita per year, which buys a significant amount of rice even at US grocery store type prices. Of course the situation isn’t quite that simple, but let’s pretend it is for now.
The question then is this. To what extent should relief organizations require that a country at least try to feed its people, before stepping in and doing it?
One one hand, outside humanitarian aid can pretty well be viewed as funding the PRNK’s army. On the other hand, there is a real humanitarian disaster going on, and people really are dying.
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peas on earth