Fire the Canon!

I was just sitting around trying to think of a good Great Debate topic, when suddenly my Bible fell into my arms. (Okay, so I picked it up. Same difference!)

Manny people have asked me, and so I wonder, who was it that decided that the canon of Judeo-Christian scripture was closed? Did a small group of people suddenly say, “God can’t communicate any more, so the Bible is all He will ever say to us,” or something?

And obviously to some groups the canon of scripture is different than to others (Judaism doesn’t accept the New Testament, Catholicism has more books in its canon than Protestantism, and Mormonism has even more books in its canon than Catholicism. And don’t get me started on those Dianetics people…)

Who the heck decides what is scripture and what is not? Isn’t it a bit, um, presumptuous to assume that God can’t speak more than He’s already spoken? (My answer to that question: yes.)

Tradition dictates scripture. There are a lot of Old and New Testament books that didn’t make the cut. They are collected in a very entertaining book called the Apocrapha. (Can’t spell that for anything). As I understand it, these books were written at around the same time as the ones that are included, but they contain ideas that are considered heretical by later church fathers (“Naw, Jesus wouldn’t have said * that”) * and were quietly discarded when it came time to collect all of the sciptures into the modern Bible.

The Jewish Canon was fixed by the Men of the Great Assembly, circa 350 BCE. This was the religious ruling body, composed of about 120 Jewish sages.

My understanding is that the early Christian church adopted the canon of Hellenistic Judaism, commonly called the Septuagint. This was a Greek translation of the Jewish Canon, and included books that were not found in the Hebrew version.

However, the early Church distinguished between the books common to both the Hebrew and Greek Jewish scriptures, and the books derived solely from the Septuagint. The books common to both traditions became the Old Testament. The books found only in the Septuagint are called the Apocrypha.

(Chaim - have I got the references to the Septuagint right?)

The early Church had different books floating around, so to speak, with some accepted unversally, and some only regionally. A Council at Rome, convened by Pope Damasus in 382, established the canon of books of the OT, Apocrypha, and NT, for the Roman Catholic and Greek Orthodox churches.

During the Reformation, some Protestant leaders refused to accept the canonical status of the Apocrypha, since those books were not found in the accepted Hebrew Canon. This became a point of diversion between the Roman Catholic and the Protestant churches, as the Roman Catholic Church re-affirmed the traditional canon at the Council of Trent, one of the major stages in the Counter-Reformation.

Martin Luther did not get rid of the Apocrypha entirely, unlike some of the Protestant leaders - he included it as an appendix to his Bible. As well, in the Anglican communion, some of the books of the Apocrypha are used as part of the accepted lectionary, but are not canonical - this is a point of distinction between the Anglican communion and churches such as the Presbyterian church.

I believe that to be accepted into the New Testament, there were two requirements: the Council held at Rome in 382 had to conclude that:

  1. the book in question was a true source of spritual inspiration/Christian doctrine, and,

  2. its authorship could be traced to an Apostle, or an associate of an apostle.

The second criterion was a way to ensure authenticity. For example, the Gospels of John and Mark are traditionally ascribed to theose two apostles, while Matthew was considered an associate of Peter, and Luke of course an assocate of Paul. (Modern textual criticism has cast some doubt on these traditional ascriptions, I believe.) By this criterion, the category of books eligible to be considered for the Canon closed when the initial generation of apostles and other disciples died out.

To further confuse the situation, there are also the Apocryphal New Testament books. These are books written around the same time as the accepted NT books, but which were rejected from the Canon, either on grounds that they did not represent true doctrine, could not be traced to a particular apostle, or both. Some of these are pure miracle stories, others are collections of gnomic sayings. One of the most interesting of these is the Gospel of Thomas, a collection of sayings attributed to Jesus. Some of those sayings are found in the canonical Gospels, but others are found solely in Thomas. Of these, there are some that NT scholars think may truly represent additional sayings of Jesus.

I don’t think so. My understanding is that the Septuagint is the entire Jewish Holy scripture translated into Greek by seventy Jewish sages. So as far as I know, there is no discrepancy between the Hebrew scriptures and the Septuagint except for the language they are written in.

However, I could be wrong. I’m certainly open to hearing from anyone who might have different knowledge of this.

Chaim Mattis Keller

The Septuagint was not exactly the most faithful translation of the Hebrew Scriptures ever made. Throughout the text, the Hebrew name of God (Yahweh/Jehovah) was translated into the Greek word for “the lord”, making it awfully hard to distinguish between where the Hebrew was saying Yahweh and where the Hebrew really did mean “lord” (Adonai). Furthermore, one subtle change in Isaiah 7:14 was, in fact, responsible for the entire Virgin Birth lore of Jesus when the Christians rolled into town: the Hebrew word for “a young, unmarried woman” was translated into the Greek word for “virgin”.

Actually, Chaim, to my knowledge, the only part of the Sept. that Judaism recognizes is the translation of the Chumash (the first five books). The rest of it was done at a later time by different authors. This is the implication from the story of the translation in the Talmud (I’ll have to wait until I get home for source location).

In addition, there were several minor changes that the sages made, lest certain passages be misunderstood.

One example, according to the Talmud, is the verse Genesis 2:2 “And God completed on seventh day…” was changed to the sixth day in the translation, lest the Greeks think that God actually worked on the seventh.

Another, more interesting example, is from Leviticus 11:16. In listing the animals that are not kosher, the Torah lists the * arneves * (commonly translated as the hare). However, according to the Talmud, the name of the king who commissioned the translation had a wife with the name Arnevess. The Sages, afraid that the King would think the Jews were making fun of him by putting his wife’s name in the translation, changed it to another term.

Zev Steinhardt

Here’s what I was thinking about. The entry for the Septuagint (“LXX”) in the Concise Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church reads (in part):

“The LXX differs from the Hebrew Bible both in the order of the Books and in the fact that it contains those Books known as the Apocrypha in the English Bibles. The text also differs in some places, e.g. the LXX of 1 Kings contains passages not in the Hebrew.”

Perhaps the confusion may be explained from another part of the entry: “The name was gradually attached not just to the Pentateuch but to the whole OT.” Are we talking about the same parts of the Greek version? (Zev - is the “Chumash” the same as the “Pentateuch”?)

Admittedly, the Concise Oxford is a Christian take on Jewish scripture - would be interested to learn more about it from the Jewish perspective.

Yes, it is. I should have been more specific.

Zev Steinhardt

I am unaware of any mistranslation of the word “virgin” from Hebrew to Greek. I believe that when the Greek was translated to Latin the word became “virgo”. “Virgo” does not mean virgin, merely young woman. The Latin term for virgin is “virgo intacta”. My understanding, which is considerably less well informed than many, is that the problem came when “virgo” was translated into English and other languages. But, I am not certain of this.

I also believe that during the creation of the Septuagint ( which I recall was supposedly done by 72 scholars ) was when the term “Sea of Reeds” was mistranslated as “the Red Sea”. Strangely enough the translation was performed in Alexandria, very close to those bodies of water.

Can anyone tell me if the Greek Church has the same canon as the Roman Church?

Virgins vs maids:

The word used in the Hebrew text was (roughly) almah which is generally translated to English now days as “young woman.” The Septuagint used the Greek work parthene which specifically means virgin. (I’m doing this off the top of my head, so the transliterations of the Hebrew and greek words may be incorrect.)
On the earlier point of the use of the word “apocrypha”: the origianl Christians referred to those works accepted by Christianity but not by Judaism as deutero-canonical, meaning (roughly) second-tier canon. When Martin Luther put them aside, they were (for Protestants) placed with the books that were “hidden,” the apocrypha.

As far as I know, the canons of the Catholics (all varieties) and the Orthodox (all varieties) are identical. There was rather more wrangling over the New Testament than the Old between those groups, with the Orthodox preferring to leave out the letter to the Hebrews and Revelation. The churches that would become the Catholics and the Orthodox finally agreed on the common canon in about 1038, just before their 1054 split.

A list of New Testament era apocryphal books.

A rational, secular perspective on the history of Christianity and its scripture.

I thought that the almah vs bethulah question was in the Aramaic language. I am guessing that the languages ( Hebrew and Aramaic ) were similar.

They are similar languages. However, the verse (Is. 7:14) is in Hebrew, not Aramaic. The only parts of the Jewish Bible that are in Aramaic are (parts of) Daniel and Ezra.

Zev Steinhardt

Found it.

The source in the Talmud is Megilla 9a.

The source also makes it clear that is was only the Pentatuch that was translated. (“Translate for me the Torah of Moses your teacher…” )

Zev Steinhardt

In a college Bible class, I used a collection known as the Pseudepigrapha for a research paper.

Where does that fit in?

OK - I can answer my own question, to a point. http://www.m-w.com says:

So, where (or better, when) does the Apocrypha end and the Pseudepigrapha begin?