This is more of a question but I think the topic may spark some debate so I’m placing it here.
Evolution (feel free to correct) postulates that, through random mutations and natural selection, favourable traits are passed down to enough offspring to enable the species to survive and adapt to the environment of that time. A change to the environment will result in a change to the species. No change to environment, no change to species but some optimization takes place. For example, sharks are good at what they do because they first evolved to suit their watery environment, then natural selection ran its course so that the best predators would catch more food, grow healthy, and survive long enough and breed enough to influence future generations of sharks. Extend this process over hundreds of thousands of years and you get a near perfect predator of the deep. If a species came into being that fed on sharks a lot, sharks would then go through another change (over time) that could drastically alter their appearance and activities from what it is today. Am I on the right track? To go further with this, any shark lacking the ability or desire to procreate would have its genetics removed from the gene pool thereby limiting the number of the next generations that would carry this trait.
My question is that, if this is the way things work (albeit an elementary version), shouldn’t the percentage of homosexuals in humanity be all but eliminated? I keep reading that homosexuality is genetic and, as far as I can tell, it doesn’t seem to follow other scientific ideas. And if homosexuality isn’t something that can be naturally selected out of the gene pool, then is it really genetic in the first place?
Now I realize that there would be societal pressures to procreate in past civilizations, but did that exert enough of an influence to account for what appears to be an increase in the number of gays in the populace? Some of the ancient Romans and Greeks viewed homosexuality as normal, keeping lovers of both sexes (no cite but will find one if deemed to be required). Are we, as humanity, still in the process of breeding out these traits after some 2000 years? But, if we go further back to the time when humans were first appearing, shouldn’t the tribes have weeded out the gays at that point so they would not be nearly as prevalant in modern society?
It seems to me that homosexuality is more likely a result of influence throughout a person’s developmental years. The person would not necessarily make a conscious choice to be gay but instead their sexual orientation would be the net influence (positive and negative) exerted on them throughout their developmental years (although there may be exceptions). I have no cite for this but on the surface it appears to have a better chance to fitting the facts than a genetically inherited predisposition to homosexuality.
I am quite aware of how this will read so please don’t bother pointing that out. It is, in my opinion, an honest question that I’ve yet to have answered. Also, I am not interested in the morality of homosexuality so please leave the judgement books at the coatcheck counter. You can have them back when you leave.