Heres what I can gather: in 1992 European financier and conspiracy theorist piñata George Soros “shorted” the British pound, causing it to collapse, and made a killing, according to people like Glenn Beck.
I interpret as something like this: he felt the Pound was going to go from lets say (these are arbitrary numbers) 2 pounds to the US dollar in exchange rate to 1.50 pounds to the dollar.
So he borrows lets say 1 billion British pounds at $2 billion USD with a promise to repay the lender in lets say, 60 days, at whatever the going rate is then.
He dumps the pounds on the market at 1.90 pounds each, losing 100 million pounds of his investment immediately, but he wants a little insurance his bet will pay off. A selling panic on the market ensues and the pound versus the dollar plummets.
60 says later, thanks to the artificial panic created by Soros AND economic events he predicted, the pound is now worth 1.50 pounds each as he predicted.
Payday is here; Soros still made 900 million pounds in his initial sale, and only has to pay 750 million pounds back to the bank, pocketing 150 million pounds from his scheme.
I know the actual numbers are higher, but is this how a currency short works? I also know this play involved investments in German Marks and French Francs, as well as few other manuevers in equities and stock markets.
Also one other thing that I cant figure out: by lowering the value of the pound, did Soros fuck himself in this example in terms of his buying power of the US Dollar? Or would there have been a workaround for that? (Again, I know the US dollar was not part of this scheme, as far as I know but Im trying to frame it in a way I can understand)
Keep in mind I have read every article there is about this, am fascinated by it, but makes my head explode.
SPEEEEAK----VERRRRRY ----SLOWLLY----ME—UNDERSTAND—BETTER!!!