Netting out taxes is tricky, but let’s try anyway.
I will assume that all taxpayers paid equal shares of their income to the Federal Government during the Gilded Age. Future adjustments could take into account the fact that the rich’s tax burden was probably lower than the middle class’s, as a share of their respective incomes. (I understand that excise taxes were the leading form of federal tax collection.)
I will use tax data from 1900 and will (problematically) ignore state and local taxes.
Total Federal budget receipts in 1900 were $567,241,000; nominal GDP was $18.6 billion. So the Feds taxed 3.0% of the economy in 1900.
The top 1% of all tax payers paid 32.7% of their income in Federal taxes in 2001, before the bulk of Bush’s tax cuts were phased in. (In comparison, the median quintile paid 16.7%.) I’ll take the top 1% figure and apply it to the Plutocratic group from above.
Estimated
Top 1/10000 Top 1/10000 after-tax
Income Share (fig4) Income as share of
(The Plutocrats) total after-tax income
($5,350,000+ in 2000)
(Pre-tax)
1913-1916 3.6% "3.6%" (by assuming flat tax structure)
2000 3.1% "2.7%"
The 2.7% figure was calculated by taking the estimated after-tax income of the Plutocrats, 3.1%*(1-.327) and dividing it by the estimated after-tax income in the entire economy (1-.223), applying 2001 data.
I’d say that “2.7%” is much closer to “Gilded Age” (3.6%) than it is to the 1953-1983 period (less than 0.6%, given greater progressivity). Heck, it’s about equal to the shares of 1913 and 1914 (2.8% and 2.7%, respectively).
The 2001 figure is also above the “Teapot dome era” share of the 1920s (2.3%).
Note that the progressivity of the US tax system in 2001, before the bulk of the GWB tax cuts, had only a small (but not trivial) effect on the income share swallowed by the Plutocrats.
Feel free to suggest further refinements. A lot of assumptions went into my calculations and their robustness is open to challenge.