I’d be more inclined to believe Vidal’s account than anyone’s that has posted in this thread.
Regardless of what the statute books determine rape to be, why is it so difficult to consider that Polanski’s victim might have been a teenage slut?
I’d be more inclined to believe Vidal’s account than anyone’s that has posted in this thread.
Regardless of what the statute books determine rape to be, why is it so difficult to consider that Polanski’s victim might have been a teenage slut?