This is an issue that has concerned me since the feds and states started the anti-gun and anti-cigarette lawsuits. As I see it, governments have no standing to sue, as they are not entities with rights. The one exception is where a government has entered into contract with a private provider (establishing a contractual right) and that provider has failed to deliver as promised.
Some may notice my equivocal language regarding the nature of government power. That is because I am libertarian, and I believe most government power is illegitimate. What I am doing here is arguing within a system that I do not fully support. If the government is going to claim power and justify that claim based upon constitutional and democratic principles, they should at least adhere to those principles. If we can’t hold the government to only those powers justified by their own arguments (constitutional democracy), how can we ever hope to reduce the de facto power of government? Let’s at least hold them to the powers they claim to wield.
Here is my rap on the issue:
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Governments are institutions of Power, not individuals with rights. The powers of the gov’t are (ostensibly) granted to it by the people, expressed in law, and limited by the judiciary in interpreting the constitution (state or federal as applicable). Governmental powers that sidestep this process constitute a USURPATION of powers NOT GRANTED by the people.
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If any group of citizens is harmed they can seek restitution through the tort system. No government need step in and sue on behalf of citizens as they already have that right. In the absence of a contract that creates a right to some performance, Governments have no standing to sue.
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The combination of power and a right to sue creates a conflict of interest as well as an opportunity for corruption. The same judiciary that hears the gov’t cases is appointed and promoted by the officials
who institute the lawsuits. In addition the threat of lawsuits or regulation could be used to promulgate regulation or lawsuits respectively. The cigarette and smith & wesson “settlements” are obvious examples.
One further comment: If the government acts to provide some sort of benefit (e.g. Medicare) and the actions of private citizens affect the cost of that benefit (e.g. selling cigarettes), that does not constitute “harm” to the general citizenry. If the act in question is legal, then it is an accepted risk in the context of our government. This is true even if the effect of the legal action upon the benefit is unanticipated. In such case even the private citizen would have no claim, and certainly the government would have none (for reasons stated).
Comments?
merckx