grammatical number question

Example:
“Only a minor fraction of the claims has been explicitly quoted in this chapter.”

I know this is correct but am uncomfortable with its sound. I would like to write “have been,” of course, instead of “has been.” There is more than one claim, after all. I want to be grammatically correct though.

“Has” is correct, because the subject is “fraction,” which is singular.

I was wondering whether the grammatically incorrect may have become acceptable in formal writing, in some cases. If not, I’ll abide by it. Thanks.

It probably doesn’t sound right to you because the plural “claims” is closer to the verb. But claims is the object of the prepositional phrase. The rule is to remove the prepositional phrase and do what is correct with what remains.

“Only a minor fraction has been explicitly quoted in this chapter.”

That rule remains intact in formal writing, and I see no sign of it changing.

The only exception lies in cases in which the noun is acting as a collection of individuals rather than as a group. “Three out of the eight claims have been explicitly quoted in this chapter.” “Three-eighths of the claims have been quoted.” Even fraction can be plural. “We’ve quoted claims in this chapter. Even though they are only a fraction of the whole, the quoted fraction are collectively quite important.”

The intention of the sentence, and the context of a larger paragraph, rules in that case.

I wouldn’t use the plural in your original sentence. Still, it’s borderline. Rewritten slightly, a plural verb could be appropriate. What image you want your audience to take away from the sentence is more important than strict thoughtless adherence to a rule.

Glad to know that. I wasn’t sure.

My goal is to maintain the reader’s concentration so I want to minimize distractions. When I read the grammatically correct version I am halted more than momentarily by the odd sound. Maybe best to change the phrasing.

The claims that have been quoted in this chapter constitute only a minor fraction of the whole.

The claims are being quoted, not the fraction, that’s what gave me pause in the original.

As aldiboronti notes, your problem isn’t subject/verb agreement. It’s that your sentence doesn’t say what you mean. Compare:

“A collection (of birds) is in the tree.”
“A collection (of birds) is chirping.”

Both are grammatically correct, but the second is logically wrong because the collection, which is in the tree, isn’t what’s chirping; the birds are chirping. Breaking subject/verb agreement is an increasingly common way to soften the wrongness that the ear notices, but it doesn’t actually remove the underlying problem.

I know this is technically correct, but how is a fraction quoted?

The usual rule in most cases is to go by sense: “a fraction… is” if the fraction is at issue, “a fraction… are” if the individual claims are at issue. Just as you would say “A huge number of people were talking,” as it’s not the number that was talking, but the people.

It’s an example of metonymy.

No, it has nothing to do with metonymy. It’s an example of a sentence that doesn’t make sense. As others have pointed out, it’s the claims that are being quoted, not the fraction.

Isn’t that an example of UK vs US difference, though? That sort of notional agreement isn’t really used in the US. For example, I don’t think I’ve ever heard a native American speaker say something like “The team are discussing next week’s game,” while the team + plural noun usage is quite common in the UK, depending on the context.

Actually, let me add, because, upon further review, I don’t quite think the situation in my last post reflects what’s going on in the OP’s sentence.

This question has been bugging me since yesterday, because “a minor fraction…have” sounds better to my ears, but I can’t quite justify why.

Here’s something that may or may not help:

Fowler also says “number … is” and “number … are” are both acceptable, depending on context.

Wouldn’t the rules that apply to “number” also apply to “fraction?” It’s being used in a completely analogous way from what I can see.

A HA! Merriam Webster’s Manual for Writers and Editors:

So, plural it is.

So my Lynne Truss quote is unnecessary.

So, the sentence as it stands, while grammatically correct, verges on not making sense – at least does not efficiently express the idea I want to get across. It certainly does not get the idea across without breaking the attention of the reader. The aspect of nearly not making sense goes far toward explaining, for me, what actually breaks the reader’s concentration.

The plural verb is acceptable, apparently, but I may just play it safe and change the whole sentence to **aldi’**s “The claims that have been quoted in this chapter constitute only a minor fraction of the whole.” Thanks everyone.

Go ahead…trust your instinct…use “have.” Even Fowler wouldn’t complain.

I think I will do that, the reason being fourteen words in the original as opposed to seventeen in aldi’s rewording.