We actually have people arguing for both. That said, limiting ownership obviously limits the use of guns.
Are you really this obtuse? Let’s try a thought experiment to help you work through this. Let’s say we magically eliminate all bullets. How dangerous would guns be? Read this very carefully. Ownership of a gun that is unlikely to be used for any purpose is far less dangerous than one that might be used or stolen. I don’t mean that each time some individual uses a gun in a innocuous way makes us all less safe. I mean that the more people have occasions to use firearms, in aggregate, the greater the likelihood something bad will happen. Mere ownership rates will influence that number, but they don’t tell the whole story. For example, basically all police officers carry guns. Yet, the guns carried by officers in violent areas will be likely be used more often, and will thus end up killing more people. This is also why the danger posed by a gun is not the same for all individuals. A gun owned by a depressed teenager, or a gang member is far more problematic than one owned by a 55-year old former cop. Why? Because the teenager/gang-member is FAR more likely to USE the gun to do something stupid.
Geez. If everyone who owned a gun only went shooting, you would be right. The problem is that that is not what actually happens. Let’s make another simple analogy. The more people drive, the greater number of accidents we will see. The more miles you drive, the more likely it is you will be in an accident. Do you agree with these (true) statements? If so, the same applies to guns. Why? Because even though many people who drive (or go to the shooting range) will be completely law abiding and responsible, on a macro level, the correlation is strong enough to effectively quantify risk. Your complaint about shooting ranges is like arguing that if I only drive at 3 am around a cul-de-sac, the increased use of my car wouldn’t make an accident more likely. That is correct, but we are not looking at things on a micro level.
Do you think using the word orthogonal makes your point any less nonsensical? First, you are drawing a distinction that is not codified in law as it pertains to our discussion. For legal adults, there is no “illegal” use of alcohol. There is illegal operation of a car while drunk, but that is not the same thing. Second, the discussion is not how often a gun, as in one particular gun, is used. It’s about how often guns in total are used. Why is that a useful metric? Because we know that a certain percentage of those uses will be bad. Whether it’s a cop shooting an unarmed person, a wannabe neighborhood watch guy shooting a teenager, homeowner shooting their kid by accident, or a depressed kid blowing his brains out. Why is this relevant? Because it tells us how risky gun use is. The risk is deliberately absent context because it is not meant to apply to every individual or every situation. It’s like if you asked how risky is it to climb Mt. Everest. Of course that risk for me is different from that of a Sherpa. But that number is still valid as a general guideline.
You are pretty much alone in that estimation.
Feel free to quote any of them.
Probably not because guns are easily stolen and misused. You can’t restrict guns to only responsible people, which is part of the problem.
Yeah… someone somewhere suggested it. :dubious:
I thought the whole point was to some dumbass gotcha that ended up blowing up in your face.
Not really. Very few thieves will break into a home to steal alcohol, whereas guns are almost always stolen. Secondly, most people don’t actively try to kill themselves with alcohol. Even the biggest drunks are usually not drinking for that purpose.
No, you haven’t. That’s particularly funny since you started by implying alcohol is more dangerous by a factor of 3 to 1. Then you found some new numbers to glom on to, deciding it was roughly equal. Either way, you have not proved either claim.
Dude, do you actually read the links? It’s not a counter factual. The people who compile the numbers are not claiming alcohol was causative (as you suggested). They ADMIT it was* not a causative factor* in many cases. For example, if you are a DD driving a car full of drunk friends, and then you are t-boned by a old (sober) lady, the accident can be classified as alcohol related.
This definition has been applied so broadly as to even include pedestrians who have been drinking being hit by a sober vehicle who was in the wrong. The reality is that number is grossly inflated, and anyone really trying to have a substantive discussion would admit that point instead of trying to pick nits.
We don’t need “data to work with” as the two things are not really related. How we regulate alcohol is not really relevant in a discussion regarding how we should regulate guns. Do you think our laws regarding heroin or oxycodone are relevant here? What about the the laws regarding workplace safety At some point the difference between the two things being compared makes the connections we could draw too tenuous.
I am saying you do not have the data to make a do an accurate quantitative analysis wrt risk, and the differences between the two things make qualitative regulatory comparisons meaningless.