DCnDC
February 14, 2011, 5:31pm
1
The 5 seconds of Google research I did says that both ways are considered correct. From here :
You may have had the same experience as I when hearing people say vice versa. Some pronounce it as vice (rhyming with rice) verse-ah, while others say vice-ah verse-ah. I decided to find the correct pronunciation (if there is one) and as is often the case, they’re both considered correct. The wikipedia entry states that the literal Latin translation is “with position turned”, making the phrase mean “the other way around” or “conversely.” It also says that historically, vice is more properly pronounced as two syllables, but the one-syllable pronunciation is extremely common.
Gary_T
February 14, 2011, 6:03pm
2
“Vice” as one syllable may be considered correct, but it shouldn’t be.
The final syllable in “vice” tends to be very short, and often is ALMOST swallowed going into the v of “versa,” but that’s not the same as making “vice” just one syllable, which is a crime against nature, humanity, and all things good.
What are those kids doing on my lawn?
Gary_T:
“Vice” as one syllable may be considered correct, but it shouldn’t be.
The final syllable in “vice” tends to be very short, and often is ALMOST swallowed going into the v of “versa,” but that’s not the same as making “vice” just one syllable, which is a crime against nature, humanity, and all things good.
What are those kids doing on my lawn?
Do you pronouce it “VEE-kay” or do you just half-ass the latin?
It’s one syllable, like the opposite of virtue.
