I was prompted by a thread on the SDMB -this one - to assume for the sake of argument that my position was wrong, and to try to think about some of the implications.
Many on the linked thread are insisting with great vehemence that there are no weapons of mass destruction in Iraq. Many of those claim that Bush deliberately lied about WMD so as to trigger a war. Others say he was simply duped, or the victim of bad intelligence or something. Still others are being proactive in claiming that they will assume that any evidence of WMD that is discovered is faked by the US - a neat way to preemptively discredit what they do not want to discover.
But let’s assume for the moment that they are right. Bush lied, or was duped, or something, and, in common with practically every other politician in the US going back to the first Gulf War, he said there were weapons of mass destruction in Iraq, when in fact there were not. So there are no WMD in Iraq.
My question then is as follows:
Why on earth would Saddam Hussein refuse to cooperate with the inspections? More specifically, when did he destroy his WMD, and why did he not simply throw his country open to the inspections, fulfill the cease-fire conditions, and get the sanctions lifted? What did he hope to gain by lying about it?
Did he really want so much to go to war with the United States and Great Britain? Why would he want a war that all informed opinion declared unanimously he would lose - and badly?
Next question - why did he think the rest of the world would know that he had destroyed the weapons? What in his background or actions would lead anyone to conclude (pre-Iraq invasion) that he was actually coming clean on his WMD? How did he expect the world to know that he was actually cooperating, when his whole history is one of prevarication, deceit, and mass murder?
And the $64,000 question - why would his destroying his WMD make any difference, if he never let anyone know about it? If the invasion of Iraq was justified as a way to destroy Saddam’s regime, and to prevent any further efforts to acquire WMD, and Saddam refused to give the world the assurances it required after Gulf War I that he was not trying to get the lid of the nuclear/biological/chemical cookie jar, how could an invasion be avoided?
It seems to me that if Saddam indeed destroyed his WMD, he did so in a way that would minimize the benefits to himself and maximize the harm. Why would he do this?
Did he want the inspectors to declare him in compliance? Then why did he not cooperate with them fully?
The whole scenario, of Saddam destroying his WMD but keeping it strictly hush-hush, makes no sense to me. Unless -
Well, there is a scenario and a motive that I can see for Saddam destroying his WMD, but still not cooperating with the UN inspectors, but I would like the thoughts of some other Dopers before I discuss it.
So whaddya think? Why would Saddam act as if he had something to hide, if in fact he did not? AFAICT, he had nothing to gain, and a dictatorship to lose.
Regards,
Shodan