It seems that the blatant forgery of the uranium documents was picked up on, it seems that Bush may have knowingly lied to the public in the State of the Union address.
Course, now they have Rice saying the opposite, http://www.voanews.com/article.cfm?objectID=D89F0A2D-92BB-4381-97376A7979AFC735 as well as Powell saying he didn’t include it in his report to the UN.
The topic for debate is, if this is true, Bush willfully lied to the American Public, and this in large part started a war, what can be done to him? Is this impeachable? Censure? Or are we left with voting him out? I understand the Republican controlled congress makes any negative result unlikely, but this seems to me to be bigger than Trent Lott’s little slurr.
You guys are making a very big deal about a single sentence in the State of the Union address of January 28.
According to the White House, Powell et al, they thought it was correct when they used it.
When it came under doubt, they stopped using it (that one sentence being the only public assertion,) and when it became clear that it was false, they admitted it.
That’s what they’re saying, and whether you are inclined to believe it or not, they have plausible deniability.
No dice. the CIA knew it was false and told the NSC in the White House that it was a lie, yet they let it be included in the SotU. The White House knew it was a lie, and they used it to scare the American public into supporting a war.
To quote myself from another live thread, since I’m tired of typing this anew each time:
I’d say lying to Congress and the American people in order to use the might of the U.S. military to invade another country for private and as yet undisclosed reasons is an impeachable offence. Short of treason, high crimes don’t get much higher.
I’m confused. As a nation with our own intelligence agency, shouldn’t we use actually use it? It certainly isn’t honest to use the statements of whichever country would help bolster our case, especially when we don’t know how those statements came to be made.
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So does everyone. The difference is that the CIA is not just anyone, it’s part of the US government, the same government making these claims. So let me ask you, do you make decisions where you know something is likely untrue, but you tell people it is true because a friend believes it?
You’re criticism of the tactics used in the field may be a valid one. The conclusion you assert from it is not.
Field commanders making independant decisions not to secure certain sites, but to use their resources to continue rolling to the fight by no logical means suggests that Bush lied.
It is certainly a possible interpretation. One of many. But hardly the most reasonable.
Latro:
That is what I posted. If you have an objection, and you can be specific, I’ll try to address it.
Avumede:
As far as I can tell, the CIA did not come out and say “This report is a falsehood.” If you have a quote saying they pronounced it clonclusively false before the SOTUA, then you have a point.
As I understand it, the CIA voiced objections which were withdrawn upon the strength of the British assertion.
The question you need to ask is why did the CIA withdraw it’s objections if they knew it was false?
I’m cribbing this point from Josh Micah Marshall but, if the President’s own intelligence shows that the Nigerian uranium story is a crock (which it did — there was nothing ambiguous about it) then using the British intelligence judgement, without vetting it first yourself, as cover to claim a point is true and valid is just as sleazy, untruthful and underhanded as making it up from whole cloth.
Of course lying to buffalo the country into an unnecessary war pales in comparason to lying about bee jays from a White House intern. Even a child can see that.
That does not mean there was conflivting intelligence.
It’s person A coming to you with information. your advisor says the data is incorrect. But you take the decision to go ahead anway on the grounds that you can always say “well, person A said it was okay.”
You have bastardized your quote. Our advisor did not say the data was incorrect. They said: “CIA officials warned members of the President’s National Security Council staff the intelligence was not good enough to make the flat statement Iraq tried to buy uranium from Africa.”
I’m not sure how you construe an assertion of falsehood from this.
They support what has been stated by the the White House, and what I originally quoted.
The CIA thought the report was “sketchy.”
The British did not.
“The British government rejected the U.S. suggestion, saying it had separate intelligence unavailable to the United States.”
“sketchy” is not unambiguously false.
If one group is sketchy and the other firm, and the other is claiming additional seperate confirming intelligence unavailable to the first group, why is it invalid to give credence to the second group with it’s claimed superior information?