I think you are having me on.
Now I know you are having me on.
I think you are having me on.
Now I know you are having me on.
You’re correct, I didn’t read through it. The reason I asked was because MrDibble was just telling me that “biologically real” and “biologically valid classification scheme” is equivalent to “taxonomically valid scheme by zoological rules.”
Now, I know by zoological taxonomic rules “males” and “females” aren’t valid classifications. And I know that MrDibble knows this. So I inferred that MrDribble doesn’t consider “males” and “females” to be “biologically real” or to be “valid biological classifications,” at least, for the purposes of this debate. And so I wanted to check if others agree. If others don’t agree, if they think “males” and “females” are “biologically real” and “biologically valid classification scheme,” I would like to know why and, more importantly, what their definition of “biologically real”,“biologically valid classification scheme”, or"meaningful biologically" is.
But you probably already discussed this.
Which has been precisely what everyone has been saying form the very first post.
THE COMPARISON DOES NOT MAKE ANY FUCKING SENSE!
You finally get it.
This is like saying "Since our current debate concerns lighting fires, could you show me why “heat” is relevant.
Really, it’s exactly the same. If you don’t have heat, you don’t *have *a fire.
If you don’t have a consistent match, you don’t *have *a classification scheme.
Wrong.
If you have even read the links that you yourself provided, you would see that this is just one of several necessary criteria.
For crying out loud. You must be having us on.
If the traits are not consistent with phylogeny, they are not phylogentically concordant. That is what freakin’ phylogenetic concordance means.
OK, we’ll start with something basic.
Lizards have lungs. Lungfish have lungs. Lemurs have lungs. Leeches do not have lungs. Loaches do not have lungs.
Lizards, Lungfish and Lemurs form a phylogenetic grouping. Loaches and leeches are not part of that phylogenetic grouping.
Therefore “Lungs” is a phylogenetically concordant trait. It consistently maps onto the phylogeny. The last common ancestor of all organisms with lungs is not an ancestor of loaches or leeches.
To use the example of Gorilla subspecies that you yourself cited earlier (and then refused to address when I showed that it totally discredited your position):D.
*Gorilla gorilla berengei *canines are larger than those of the other two subspecies. Simple as that. It’s a relatively invariant trait, all G. g. berengei animals have larger canines than the other subspecies. Canine variation between G. g. berengei and the other subspecies is much greater than that within any subspecies. Since we also know that 1) G. g. berengei inhabits an area not inhabited by any other subspecies and 2) G. g. berengei is genetically distinct and thus forms a unique phylogentic branch, we can use this as a definting charateristic of the subspecies G. g. berengei.
Contrast that with any human trait.
Epicanthic folds are not restricted to East Asians, they are also found in Polynesians, Australoids, Sami and Southern Africans. The diveristy of the epicanthic fold within Eats Asian populations is less than the diversity of the fold found outside East Asia. Many San and Sami have far more pronounced folds than many Koreans. The same is true of any other trait. There simply is not any trait or suite of traits that maps onto east Asian
East Asians do not occupy a range not inhabited by other subspeices. Populations of Classic East Asians are found from Bali to Kyrgistan, from Chittagong to Alaska. And there is no region that is only inhabited by East Asians. The Ainu inhabit Japan, there are various Australoid groups in SE China. There simply is no East Asian geographic range. Nobody can draw a line on the map and say “that is the east Asian geographic range”, everybody within that range is either East Asian or a hybrid between East Asian and another sub-species, and nobody outside that range is an East Asian. It can not be done. Either any East Asian territory will be occupied by people who are clearly Caucasoid/Australoid/Negroid, or else there will be people outside that range who are clearly east Asian. So there is no East Asian geographic range. In contrast G. g. berengei. inhabits a very distinct range. Within that range every single gorilla will either be G. g. berengei. or a (very rarely) hybrid between G. g. berengei. G. g. graueri and (and this is important) not a sigle gorilla exists outside that range that meets the morphological characteristics of G. g. berengei..
East Asians are not a phylogentic grouping. Populatons in Southern China are more closely related to NZ Maori than they are to people in Chinese Siberia. People in Chinese Siberia are more closely related to Scandinavian Sami than they are to people in Beijing. People in Taiwan are more closely related to Inuit than they are to people in Beijing. East Asians are not a phylogenetic grouping. The last common ancestor of 51% of East Asians is also the last common ancestor of *all *Europeans and *all *Australians and *all *Amerinds. In contrast, the last common ancestor of 95% of G. g. berengei was not an ancestor of any other gorilla subspecies. That common ancestor only gave rise to one branch.
I would appreciate you actually responding to the posts I made above, rather than simply ignoring them because they show that your own references utterly discredit your position. But I do thank you for introducing the gorilla example, since it highlights perfectly why human races are not valid subspecies
So here is an example of the term’s usage in context to subspecies delineation:
Do you think that the historic migration of P. m. newtoni and P. c. obscurus, 5000 years ago, was observed (by biologists)? That’s incredible. (“Unique natural history” does not mean, in this context, the “observation of organisms in their natural environment.”)
This is why I said: “consistent with the criteria, rules, and standards applied to many non-human populations.”
:rolleyes:
That is exactly what is *does *fucking mean in this context. That’s *all *that it means.
And that is why humans can not have a natural history.
Now how about responding to the rest of the post that you just quoted?
Especially, the parts where your own references utterly discredit any notion that intra-racial differences in humans are small enough to allow subspecies distinctions.
I like settling issues one at a time. Can someone else voice an opinion on this. Blake said: "For the third time, Natural History “is neither more nor less than the observation of organisms in their natural environment.” And then argued that human populations don’t have natural histories. I gave an example of the use of natural history in context to subspecies delineations.
Blake replied: “That is exactly what is does fucking mean in this context.”
I don’t understand what he’s saying. It seems obvious to me, as it did to Ernst Mayr, that human populations have unique natural histories (in the way P. m. newtoni and P. c. obscurus do).
If we can’t agree on this issue, I see no reason to continue this discussion.
Way to run when you are getting roasted dude.
How about we try it the other way.
How about you just explain how, since natural history is the observation of organisms in their natural environment, and humans have no natural environment, how the fuck natural history can be applied to humans? Either no human environment is natural (which is tautologically true) or, at best, all human environments are natural, and there can be no distinction between natural history and plain history as it applies to humans.
Alternatively, perhaps you could provide an example of someone referring to human natural history in a manner that is compatible with your usage of “phylogenetic history”.
Either one will satisfy me. Because if you can’t do either, you are quite clearly not using these words in a manner that anybody else is using them, and presumably you personally invented this usage, as you have done with so many other terms.
Well, yes. Races are rough reflections of evolutionary history, no? As, Lahn & Ebenstein point out:
(my bolding)
http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v461/n7265/box/461726a_BX1.html
Hey, Chen.
You claimed that Indians and Lebanese immigrants living in NZ are not considered to be Caucasian?
Do you have any evidence for this extraordinary claim? Or are you, yet again, making shit up?
This is the third time i have asked this question.
And once again, I encourage this behaviour in you. The past 4 pages of this thread are now filled with evidence of you squirming away form these ridiculous claims that you have made.
There is no better evidence of how ridiculous your position is than to watch you being hounded for evidence for your claims, and being unable to provide any.
Keep it up.
Repeating yourself is not a counter-argument.
Both. And doesn’t address my points.
Who gives a shit what the thread topic is? I’m referring to the discussion I was having, which isn’t quite the same thing.
If you group people on one trait (say, some dentition pattern) and the Africans all separate out as a single group, but if you group them on another trait (say, skin colour) and they don’t but other groupings do, then “Africans” is not a valid grouping overall, only for (in this case) dentition. So if your taxonomy *is based on *skin colour, “African” is not a valid grouping. Ditto the set of “skin colour and kinky hair and flat noses”. See what I mean by “piddly differences” yet?
And if your entire modus operandum is to find only that set of criteria that lets you group a set you’ve already identified as African, we’re going to go :dubious: and :smack: and :rolleyes:
What, like tigers? I’ve already addressed why the existing tiger subspecies really isn’t where you want to plant your flag.
Since “natural environment” is defined in contrast to the human environment (“without massive human intervention”, “not originating from human activity.”), I can see what Blake means. I don’t necessarily agree that it’s the right way to do things, but that is how “natural environment” is considered for now.
Assuming that’s true, you need to take that up with Whambulance since he is the one who attempted to draw the negligible/profound distinction.
Of course, I have no idea how to demonstrate the “validity of the group” by your standards.
I asked you earlier whether a classification scheme is scientifically invalid if it fails your 95/5 test. You refuse to answer this question.
A distinction that your assertion goes no way to addressing.
After 10 pages if you still don’t understand “Objective and logical” then there is no chance you are ever going understand. Everyone else gets it. Even Chen.
Nonsense.
…
Blake,
“Natural history” in “a unique natural history” is used as a noun; here it refers to a property of the said members. Now, what properties constitute “natural histories”?
Here are the definitions which you keep citing:
So the natural histories of the members can refer to their interactions with the environment and to their evolutionary history.
You keep juxtaposing “natural environment” to “built environment” – and maintaing that humans don’t have natural ones. Here is wiki on “natural environment”:
The definition seems to be contradictory. If the “natural environment” encompasses the interactions of all living species, it should encompass those of humans.
But we need not get bogged down in terminological analysis. For one, none of the definitions above uses the term “natural environment.” So for these definitions your silly argument doesn’t work. Second, as noted above, per the definitions you cite, natural history also involves the evolutionary history of the organisms. We could grant, for the sake of argument, that humans don’t have ‘natural environments,’ by some definitions, and therefore interactions with them, but still maintain that they have evolutionary histories. I don’t see any logical ANDs in the definitions. Nothing indicates that “natural history” necessitates both having interactions AND having evolutionary histories. Third, the term ‘natural history’ is used in context to humans. For example,
Part II. Human Natural History in PRINCIPLES OF HUMAN ECOLOGY
Huh, how about that? You can also see this term used in discussion of specific human populations. For example,
Huh, how about that?
No doubt you would object. You would repeat that the “natural” in “natural history” implies “non-human,” even if the specific definitions given don’t state this. Let’s just refer to one of the definitions which you yourself point to: “Descriptive ecology and ethology.” You would agree that there is such a thing as human ethology, right? And human ecology? In no way does this definition suggest “non-human.”
And, we saw above that “human natural history” is referred to in books on human ecology. How about that?
…But how is this possible??? Didn’t those authors read your argument? I guess not.
I keep looking over your citations and seeing ways in which you’re contradicted. Let’s see:
So why does the Smithsonian national museum of natural history have a section on human evolution (phylogenetic history)? Did they make a mistake?
Should I write them and let them know?
…
Given the above, am I the only one that disagrees with Blake on this issue?
SO that would be a big “No” on your ability to explain how natural history can be applied to humans?
And an equally big “No” on your ability to provide an example of someone referring to human natural history in a manner that is compatible with your usage of “phylogenetic history”.
That pretty much settles the issue then.
Here’s Blake:
Here’s what google scholar gives for this tautology. 290 references.
Let me take an excerpt from one:
Commonly used? No. Tautology? No.
SO let’s get this clear Chuck. When you use the term “natural history” to refer to humans, you are using it as a synonym for “anthropology”?
Because if that is what you mean, why the fuck didn’t you simply say “anthropology” rather than using these obfuscating terms? Could it be because you know damn well that no race has anything like consistent anthropological similarities? :dubious:
And if that isn’t what you mean, then quoting someone that does use the term as a synonym of anthropology is not in any way “an example of someone referring to human natural history in a manner that is compatible with your usage”.
At this stage I am not even going to comment on the obvious fact that “anthropology” isn’t even tangentially related to “phylogenetic history”, which is what you claimed that “natural history” refers to.
Let’s just clear up whether you now want to use “natural history” to mean “anthropology” as you reference does, or if you are simply introducing yet more obfuscation without actually providing an example of someone referring to human natural history in a manner that is compatible with your usage.
I guess that I have to outline my argument:
(1) There are many definitions of “natural history” (based on your cite)
(2) Some might exclude “human,” some clearly do not (based on your cite)
(3) By the ones that do not, it’s not inconsistent to refer to “human natural history” (this logically follows)
This is why some people discuss “human natural history” as cited.
Why is this so difficult to understand? Let’s see:
“Biological Anthropology: The Natural History of Humankind, Second Edition, 2005”
“The only book that integrates the foundations and the most current innovations in the field from the ground up. Over the past twenty years, this field has rapidly evolved from the study of physical anthropology into biological anthropology, incorporating the evolutionary biology of humankind based on information from the fossil record and the human skeleton, genetics of individuals and of populations, our primate relatives, human adaptation, and human behavior . Stanford combines the most up-to-date, comprehensive coverage of the foundations of the field with the modern innovations and discoveries.”
Holy smokes, you mean that Humans can have a natural history? But, teacher, Blake said…