IMF study says it was wrong about Keynesianism.

To me, this seems intuitively obvious, but of course intuition does not equal science.

So, does this study really say what Business Insider claims it says? Has Olivier Blanchard really “admitted” what it claims he has admitted? Is this article just spin?

Was the study done properly? Does it really mean anything?

I’m not sure anyone here is qualified to dispute a report by the Chief Economist of the IMF, but given that they are admitting a mistake I’d think they’d be pretty sure of their results. Krugman mentions this study in his column today, btw. The economy in most of Europe is not reacting to austerity in the way it was predicted to by the austerity fans, that is for sure.

The paper is far more tepid than the, well, idiot who wrote the article seems to think. They don’t “admit” jack; the abstract reads in full:

The rest of the paper is equally cautious. I’m not aware of Blanchard, really, but judging from his writings, he’s never been a fan of severe austerity measures, and is not claiming to have made any error here. His policy recommendation appears to be “expand in haste, contract at leisure.” In his 2011 year-end blog, he made several points, among them that assuring liquidity is top priority, while fiscal consolidation should be done slowly and deliberately; above all, make a sensible plan and stick to it.

Voyager, got a link to Krugman? I don’t see it.

Here’s another article on the same paper, which says in part (emphasis added):

Wrong. The IMF has released many qualifications to the issue of consolidation, but it’s undeniable that they forecast that consolidation and micro-reforms would produce growth. These claims were not only completely wrong, they reinforced and prolonged the harmful policy of austerity.

Apologies for reposting the same article - Askance beat me to it.

I’m not up to speed so bear with me…

Is it accurate to say:

[ul]
[li]If I understand Keynesian economics is the theory is that government should spend to induce growth.[/li][li]The IMF opposed Keynesian economics and instead voted for austerity[/li][li]The IMF now admits austerity was a bust and that in face Keynesian economics would have been better capable of handling the Eurozone economic crisis[/li][/ul]

Please correct me if I’ve missed the point.

Sounds right, except that Keynesian economics is the theory that government spending induces growth during a downturn only.

So is there any chance both US parties will agree that government initiatives to induce economic growth is a good idea?

“The beatings will continue until morale improves.”

There was a time, back in the '50s and '60s, when both parties did, apart from some weirdo hard-right GOP outliers like Senator Robert Taft and Barry Goldwater . . . but then “movement conservatism” came along and took over the GOP. Since the Tea Party appears to be its latest iteration, it’s not going away just yet, more’s the pity.

Slight hijack…

I saw a link on the dope to a great presentation about the Greek fiscal crisis. It was a guy doing stuff on a drawing board and he compared the way the EU treated Greece to the way the US treated Boston (?) when the city had a financial crisis. He detailed the way that the EU response simply drove Greece into further chaos while the US response (economic incentive) rescued Boston from disaster to financial viability.

Anyone know what I’m talking about? I’d love to find that.

Not exactly. Keynesian economics is concerned with fiscal policy in a recession. Because the economy is falling or stuck in disequilibrium, with idling capacity and high unemployment, the government should step in to take up the slack of the private sector. However, that position say nothing about policy during a boom. The Keynesian position during a boom is that you should accumulate budget surpluses and avoid crowding out the private sector.

Almost all mainstream economists believe that normal macroeconomic stabilisation involves some counter-cyclical fiscal operations through automatic stabilisers and monetary policy set by an independent central bank. The issue is more about the inadequacy of modern monetary policy (central banking based on an inflation target and Taylor rule type function) at the zero lower bound - and thus the necessity and effectiveness of discretionary fiscal stimulus.

Despite the heated nature of the public controversy over stimulus, conservative economists have historically been very comfortable favouring tax cuts as stimulative in this regard, despite their low multiplier, whilst denying other forms of expenditure-based stimulus. This is intellectually inconsistent - though they have other reasons for favouring tax cuts.

The market monetarists have a far better critique of fiscal stimulus.

They were more qualified than that. But essentially they did predict that consolidation and reforms would produce growth.

Not only was it a predictive bust, but it was totally counter-productive to the fiscal position they were ostensibly worried about.

I don’t think that what they’re saying includes the bolded language (and if they did, it would only be speculation). It’s not either-or, that if one doesn’t work, the other would have. Bear in mind, for instance, that Administration economists similarly overestimated the growth effects of the 2009 fiscal stimulus.

Ah - OK.

So all they’re saying is “what we tried didn’t work”’

Which does not mean “we admit that what the other guys wanted would have worked”

So - “We were wrong, that doesn’t make the other side right”

Yes?

For the most part, European governments haven’t been practicing austerity. Not in any meaningful way. Some countries have continued to increase spending.

With this knowledge, how can someone say that empirically austerity is not working in Europe?

Conservative economists have disputed the idea that tax cuts have lower multipliers. Here is a review of some of the literature
As has already been pointed out most of what is called austerity are actually tax increases coupled with a leveling off in government spending, not actual cuts in spending.
What Keynesianism would recommend is borrowing money to pay for increased government spending. During the Euro zone crisis countries that are most effected have seen borrowing costs go up significantly, so it is not clear that the Keynesian response was possible.

Some relevant graphs.

And her reply, as long as we’re just quoting the exchange.

Wellll, it does mean I was right all along…

Can someone explain Krugman’s position here?

Why is it that welfare/unemployment payments or bank bailouts don’t count, either as Keynesian stimulus or in measuring austerity?

I mean, I can understand that they don’t count if someone was measuring the social-political orientation of a country. But why would they not count in terms of these economic policies?

All policies which consolidate the fiscal position, including reducing spending growth, if not the level, as well as taxes, are technically part of what we are calling austerity. Essentially the problem is these policies are pro-cyclical reinforcing disequilibrium.