“An INFIELD FLY is a fair fly ball (not including a line drive nor an attempted bunt) which can be caught by an infielder with ordinary effort, when first and second, or first, second and third bases are occupied, before two are out.”
Why does the Infield Fly Rule specify men on first and second, or bases loaded and not specify just a man on first?
Because there is no advantage to be gained by dropping a fly ball with just a man on first.
Sure, you’ll get the force at second (most likely), but since it’s a fly ball, and not a line drive, the batter will have reached first before the ball lands, and thus, only one out will be recorded on the play.
The runner on first is expected to stay on first. If the ball is caught, one out, the runner is still on first, so no net damage. If it is dropped, the batter is expected to make it safely to first before the ball is dropped, retrieved, thrown to second and then back to first, a reasonable expectation.
With more that one runner on, the chances of a double play or triple play are greater with an intentional drop. This is what the rule was out in place to protect against.
I’ll have to go look it up, but my recollection of the rules says that the infield cannot drop a ball on purpose. That doesn’t mean they cannot let it fall without touching it. As I said, I’ll have to double check it at some point, but I’m too lazy to go wade through the rules at this moment.
A batter is out when:
(l) An infielder intentionally drops a fair fly ball or line drive, with first, first and second, first and third, or first, second and third base occupied before two are out. The ball is dead and runner or runners shall return to their original base or bases; APPROVED RULING: In this situation, the batter is not out if the infielder permits the ball to drop untouched to the ground, except when the Infield Fly rule applies.
I don’t understand your post. The whole purpose of the infield fly rule is that dropping the ball on purpose or letting it drop (which is the same thing) should not be to the defense’s advantage. It doesn’t make any difference whether the fielder drops it or lets it drop. It’s still the infield fly rule.
Incidentally, an outfield fly can be judge an infield fly if, in the judgment of the umpire, an infielder could have caught it.
I’m not so sure, cmosdes. I am fairly certain I have seen umpires call the infield fly rule while the ball is in the air, before anyone has a chance to catch it (or drop it or let it drop).
What **cmosdes ** is getting at, I think, is that an infielder can’t let a pop up just fall out of his glove deliberately.
Note from my post about rule 6.05 (l). The Infield Fly rule is something that is automatically invoked in particular situations. Rule 6.05 (l), which governs deliberately dropping fly balls and line drives is more of a judgment call and can be applied with just a runner on first or runners on first and third.
The infield fly rule only applies with 1st and 2nd or bases loaded situations.
The funny part is that I BobT had said what I was trying to clear up:
The infield fly rule aside, I was trying to point out that infielders can, in fact, let balls drop. They just can’t drop them. Clear as mud?
For anyone confused, I’ll sum it up this way:
If the infield fly rule is in effect, the batter is out if the ball is fair. Period. No question.
If the infield fly rule is not in effect, infielders may not purposely drop a fly ball (or line drive) if there is a runner on first and less than two outs. What this means is that the batter is out if the fielder touches the ball and then purposely lets it fall out of their glove, hand, whatever. This does not preclude the fielders from letting the ball simply fall untouched.