OK, here goes:
Theism is often (perhaps rightly) accused of being inconsistent with observable and tangible reality, and of posessing ‘internal’ logic.
Isn’t this just a question of reference frames though? couldn’t the same be said of ‘science’ (sorry to call it that, but I need some sort of generalisation), which, dealing with tangible and observable factors, is also ‘internally consistent’ - albeit more widely accepted and more readily experienced.
I’m sorry if this comes across as ignorant or provocative, I’m struggling to find the right words for what’s actually on my mind.
Perhaps as an example (I feel sure I’m oversimplifying, so please be gentle with me), take Occam’s Razor (the simplest explanation is usually the correct one or words to that effect) - isn’t it self-referential? don’t we need to first accept that Occam’s Razor is in itself the simplest explanation?, sure, we can observe that it appears to be sound, but again, we’re observing things within and from our own frame of reference (the physical world).
Now before this sparks off counterexamples involving giant pink pixies/unicorns, please understand where I’m coming from on this, yes, it does seem more logical that, for example, objects fall because of a force called ‘gravity’ instead of the influence of a pixie, but why does it seem more logical? Would it still seem more logical if we were able to observe from a neutral reference frame?(if such a thing is possible)
Like I said, I’m seeking answers, not trying to inflame, please keep it friendly.