Interpreting Mark 15:2

In My Humble Opinion
1

I’m not much of a Bibologist, but I am wondering how we are supposed to interpret Mark 15:2. From the English Standard Version:

‘And Pilate asked him, “Are you the King of the Jews?” And he answered him, “You have said so.”’

From the New American Standard Bible:

‘Pilate questioned Him, “Are You the King of the Jews?” And He answered him, “It is as you say.”’

Some Bibles make it sound like Jesus is saying ‘you said it, not me,’ while others make it sounds like Jesus is affirming that he is in fact the king of the Jews.

How is it actually supposed to be interpreted? I’m confused.

2

I interpret both “You have said so,” and “It is as you say” as being slightly sarcastic ways of saying, “If Pilate says it’s so, clearly it must be so.”

3

From the Codex Sinaiticus.

Here’s the original Greek for the second sentence of the second verse:

I think, based on a ‘punctuation mark’ on the site, that Jesus’ actual words are just the last two: “ϲυ λεγειϲ”

It’s a short answer, which is translated on the site as ‘thou sayest.’

So I go with their translation. I don’t speak ancient Greek, but it certainly is a short answer.

To me (a dilettante) that seems much closer to ‘you said it, not me.’

It also fits in with Pilate not finding anything to condemn Jesus for. Claiming to be God was a crime.

4

That’s pretty snarky for the son of god. :smiley:

5

Actually it is the polite way to answer a direct question in a Jewish judicial proceeding of the time. The meaning is sort of “I affirm what you say”. It wasn’t evasive, and He wasn’t being sarcastic. Although Pilate didn’t get it.

Compare Jesus saying the same thing when questioned “Are you the Christ?” He says the same thing (according to at least one account) and the high priests recognize immediately that He was agreeing that He is the Messiah. The high priest then tears his clothes, the traditional gesture when blasphemy is committed in one’s presence.

Regards,
Shodan

6

I read Isaac Asimov’s Guide to the Bible some years ago. As I recall it, he explained that this was a much-used device – either by Jesus Himself or by the authors who wrote the Bible.

Wrong-thinking and wrong-speaking could get you into a lot of trouble. By locutions such as this, Jesus (or the biblical authors) could get their message across (at least in coded form that the “believers” would understand), while maintaining “plausible deniability” in case they got arrested and charged with anything.

I wonder, if that’s true, how well did it work? Would a response like that really have whooshed Pilate?