Now that she’s post op and I’m assuming she’s attracted to women, does that mean she is a lesbian?
I’ve wondered this too. I am guessing that as a woman attracted to other women, she considers herself a lesbian.
She may, but, to me, the real question is whether or not an actual lesbian would consider her a lesbian. I’d guess it might be split along generational lines; as a older lesbian I’d say no, not a lesbian.
A friend of mine is a pre-op (most likely never-op) transwoman who is married to a charming young lady. Labels get complicated.
I have never asked but I presume they consider themselves lesbians despite the details of what acts they may perform in private.
I thought she was a never-op, and don’t want to know any more details.
To determine if she’s an actual lesbian, you have to ask an actual lesbian? How delightfully circular!
As far as I’m aware, she’s only attracted to other women, so yes, she’s an “actual” lesbian.
It is honestly hard to say when addressing from my view. That is, even if you are post-op, you are still not that sex. That is, even if you are post-op FTM, you were born with female parts and chromosomes. Therefore, you are still biologically a woman. If we could get it so that MTF or FTM was 100% the opposite sex (which includes removing all at-birth chromosome types and completely changing the brain chemistry to be that of the opposite sex), then I would consider Caitlyn a lesbian. In short, even if you are a FTM and legally considered a male, I look at genetics.
Now, if you are born a guy but have some chromosome condition where you have female chromosomes, I would argue that could fall under intersex. If a person is intersexed, that is where I would consider the sex/gender they want to be.
Do you advocate gene screenings for all social interactions?
Why are people assuming that she was always attracted to women? She could have previously been a gay man or bisexual, which would make her, post-op, a hetero or bi woman.
I think people are assuming she was always attracted to women because she married two women (or was it three?). The last family she was married into (yeah those people) seemed to be pretty open about every little thing and so does Caitlyn so I think we would know. If we were interested.
She did say, somewhere, that she wants a man (or men?) to treat her like a man treats a woman. (So: stepped on, lied to, cheated on and treated like dirt? Or does she want them to open doors?)
Caitlyn was attracted to women (married three, and fathered children with two) when she publicly identified as male. She has never given any indication that she was ever attracted to men. During her public transition, she stated that she didn’t know which sex she would be attracted to once she began living as a woman, and that for the moment she would be asexual. She was asked about becoming a lesbian, and was very uncomfortable with the question. I believe she said that she never thought of herself as gay.
Although she talked about dating men as something she associated with being a woman, following her transition, she has at least publicly appeared to continue to be attracted to women and has most recently appeared to be dating a transwoman. My personal opinion from following her story has been that her original idealized version of being a woman included relationships with men, but that she has since found that regardless of her gender idenity, her attraction is to women. Whether this makes her a lesbian depends on how you define the term.
I do think there is some usefulness to the “just ask” school of thought. Because there is that whole “I don’t want to be labeled” stuff and the Kinsey scale. So even if you’ve only expressed attraction to the same gender, you may not be gay/lesbian.
I know that I would identify myself as straight, but I’m really more attracted to not-males, which includes many androgynous people.
My confusion stems from the fact that Caitlyn still prefers women, however she is used to being with women as a man. Does that change?