Today I encountered another person that thought the Immaculate Conception referred to Jesus’ conception without sex. This belief seems more common than the view expressed in the Catholic dogma.
This encounter got me thinking. The Immaculate Conception is basically just an untestable belief. If more people believe the term “Immaculate Conception” refers to Jesus’ conception, isn’t that what the term refers to? We are not talking about an objective fact.
Even if there are not more people that believe the Immaculate Conception refers to Jesus’ conception, does the critical mass of belief make this view of the term “Immaculate Conception” valid?
Why is the belief of well-schooled Catholics (and non-Catholics) more valid than the belief of the large segment of society that believes “Immaculate Conception” refers to Jesus’ conception?