Hi,
I think that I have found some convincing evidence that Jesus' miracles are genuine. I would like to hear your opinions.
First read Mark 8:22-26 (RSV):
“22 And they came to Bethsaida. And some people brought to him a blind man, and begged him to touch him. 23 And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the village; and when he had spit on his eyes and laid his hands upon him, he asked him, ‘Do you see anything?’ 24 And he looked up and said, ‘I see men; but they look like trees, walking.’ 25 Then again he laid his hands upon his eyes; and he looked intently and saw everything clearly. 26 And he sent him away to his home, saying, ‘Do not even enter the village.’”
When I read these verses a long time ago, I became confused. Why did Jesus need to lay his hands upon the blind man twice? Did He not heal the blind man correctly the first time He tried? Did Jesus not heal the blind man "all the way"? Was it an imperfect healing? Or was/is Jesus trying to communicate some kind of symbolism in not healing the blind man wholly at first? I decided to ask a scripture expert.
The response that I received from the expert said that what Jesus was doing seemed to be a symbolic act representing a process of coming to faith which is not instantaneous but proceeds from a blurred vision of reality to clear sight. And also perhaps it was symbolic of baptism, referring to the sacramental action of Jesus spitting on the blind man's eyes and laying His hands on him, which resulted in sight. Obviously, the blind man receiving sight is symbolic of a person receiving faith. And there were other such tidbits that the expert noted, but the above is enough.
His answer was good enough for me. But then another person wrote to the forum and offered a different solution. This person said that she had found the answer to the double healing confusion in a Discover Magazine article titled "Sight Unseen".
You may read that article Hi,
I think that I have found some convincing evidence that Jesus' miracles are genuine. I would like to hear your opinions.
First read Mark 8:22-26 (RSV):
“22 And they came to Bethsaida. And some people brought to him a blind man, and begged him to touch him. 23 And he took the blind man by the hand, and led him out of the village; and when he had spit on his eyes and laid his hands upon him, he asked him, ‘Do you see anything?’ 24 And he looked up and said, ‘I see men; but they look like trees, walking.’ 25 Then again he laid his hands upon his eyes; and he looked intently and saw everything clearly. 26 And he sent him away to his home, saying, ‘Do not even enter the village.’”
When I read these verses a long time ago, I became confused. Why did Jesus need to lay his hands upon the blind man twice? Did He not heal the blind man correctly the first time He tried? Did Jesus not heal the blind man "all the way"? Was it an imperfect healing? Or was/is Jesus trying to communicate some kind of symbolism in not healing the blind man wholly at first? I decided to ask a scripture expert.
The response that I received from the expert said that what Jesus was doing seemed to be a symbolic act representing a process of coming to faith which is not instantaneous but proceeds from a blurred vision of reality to clear sight. And also perhaps it was symbolic of baptism, referring to the sacramental action of Jesus spitting on the blind man's eyes and laying His hands on him, which resulted in sight. Obviously, the blind man receiving sight is symbolic of a person receiving faith. And there were other such tidbits that the expert noted, but the above is enough.
His answer was good enough for me. But then another person wrote to the forum and offered a different solution. This person said that she had found the answer to the double healing confusion in a Discover Magazine article titled "Sight Unseen".
(You may read that article here.) The article concerns a man who has had his eye healed (I believe that his other eye was too physically damaged) by a new treatment with corneal stem cells. He can see perfectly now, right? Nope. If a person has been blind from birth or early childhood, and this man was blinded at age 3, his brain has never had the chance to develop the proper neural pathways for sight. So this man who underwent this corneal stem cell treatment can’t make sense of what he sees. His sight is very blurry.
Now go back and read the Bible verses. At first the blind man can see people, but they look like "trees, walking," or, as another translation would put it, "walking trees." This is what the article confirms with pictures that show how a person who has been blind from birth or early childhood but has had his vision restored by this corneal stem cell treatment would see objects. People would look like blurry trees.
The person who wrote to the expert forum after me solves the double healing confusion by saying that she thinks Jesus performed a double miracle. He first healed the blind man's eyes. Then He healed the now not-so-blind man's brain, which was previously incapable of processing incoming visual information Th is solves the question why the blind man was having trouble seeing clearly, perceiving human beings as "trees, walking." It wasn't an imperfect healing. It was a double healing.
My question is this: Do you think that this is convincing evidence that Jesus’ miracles are genuine? If not, why?
Thanks,
richardc