First, lux, you need to sit down and take a big deep breath.
Second, you need to re-read this thread. NOT from your pre-conceptions of what it’s talking about, but from WHAT PEOPLE ACTUALLY SAID.
So let’s recapitulate, eh?
The OP asked about “Jesus’s real name.” That is, what did people call him? When his mother yelled for him to come in this instant, what did she say? When his friends asked him to come over and shoot pool, what did they call him? When he was preaching to an audience, what did they call him?
Whether he existed is a different question. This question is, assuming he existed, what was his name? There is clear recognition in the OP that the name “Jesus” is derived from the Greek, from the Hebrew, with several stops in between.
Clearly, that “real name” was Hebrew or Aramaic. I guarantee that it was not Greek or Spanish.
The OP suggests “Yeshua ha-Nostri” and I questioned that. The format of that name is clearly Hebrew or Aramaic, both the “Yeshua” and the “ha-” are clear indicators of that. “Ha” means “the” in Hebrew, so this is not Jesus’s name, it is some sort of title, as in “Eliyahu ha-Navi” (Elijah the Prophet) or “Dahveed ha-Melekh” (David the King.) Except that I could not find a meaning for “Nostri.”
You then posted a very snide comment about how the New Testament was originally written in Greek, and that’s why I couldn’t find “Nostri” in my Hebrew Dictionary. You accused me of having “mistaken ideas” and not having done any “real research.” You then launched into a lengthy aside about Biblical authorship, which is irrelevant to this thread.
Arnold countered that by pointing to the Staff Reports that I wrote (with the help of others, but I was primary author/editor) as indication that I may know what I’m talking about.
I, in fact, do NOT disagree with your statements about the history of the name “Jesus” or the history of the New Testament (I might quibble about your wording, but that’s minor.) My last post was simply a warning, lest anyone interpret your comments about “no evidence” to mean anything more than that. There is very little, or no, evidence for the existence of all but a handful of people from those days in Rome, let alone in Judea.
I agree with you, Chronos’ Richard Nixon analogy is far-flung. A better analogy would be the existence of Pontius Pilate. There is no direct evidence of his existence, and the indirect evidence is a half-sentence from Tacitus (from whom we have no original texts, only copies of copies.)
So why have you got this incredible chip on your shoulder? No one is attacking you, but you have been attacking me (without justification) from your very first post. Now, sit down, take a deep breath, AND READ WHAT I SAID, not what you imagined I said.
And, by the way, the reason we have “Jesus” with a “J” instead of an “I” is the same reason we have Joseph instead of Yoseph, Jacob instead of Yaakob, etc. That’s thanks to the Germans, and specifically Martin Luther, who translated the Bible into German and used the letter “J” to represent the Hebrew sound “Y” (which it does in German.) These spellings got pulled over into English from the German, with the letter “J” retained and so arose the mis-pronunciations.