You keep calling it a strawman argument to avoid actually responding to the question. I am not misrepresenting your argument (which would be a strawman) but rather making my own argument which you avoid addressing by improperly proclaiming it to be a strawman argument.
I have already spelled this out. “Arms” means weapons by definition (cite already provided). The Founding Fathers were not specific on what weapons people are allowed to keep. They just said “arms”.
Justice Scalia and Justice Thomas (not sure about the rest) are originalists when it comes to constitutional interpretation. They seek to figure out what the FF’s meant when they wrote the constitution and to those two (at least) that should be the current law that obtains today till it is changed via another Amendment.
So, when the FF’s wrote the constitution were there any weapons, any at all of any type, which were prohibited to a citizen? IIRC some citizens owned cannons. Private ships often went armed to the teeth. Prospectors would use explosives that I seriously doubt were regulated. Name one weapon that Joe Citizen could not privately own in 1791.
So, following the interpretation of SCOTUS justices the 2nd Amendment, as written, allows the citizens access to any weapon whatsoever. That is apparently what the FFs meant if we go with the current interpretation that “militia” in there is essentially meaningless rhetoric.
Thankfully even Scalia and Thomas cannot avoid the realities that many of today’s weapons should not be available to the general public. So, they draw a line and say “these are ok, those are not ok”. It is an arbitrary line.
Now, it was you (more than once I might add) who was careful to note there is a right to “effective” self defense. I believe that was a careful choice of words to head off someone saying why not use a baseball bat or something to defend yourself.
So, you have a continuum of weapons out there in the world. Everything from a rock or pointy stick to a nuclear weapon. They have varying effectiveness in varying situations. You have a right to an “effective” (remember your word) means of self defense. The FF’s forbid you nothing in the law as they understood it (which again I point out is an interpretation held to by some SCOTUS justices).
This brings us to you having access to hand grenades or machine guns or bazookas or what-have-you. The line drawn is arbitrary on what you are allowed to have and what you aren’t. Since it is arbitrary and since the FFs did not contemplate prohibiting any particular weapon and since you have a right to effective self defense then how is it ok to deny you machine guns or hand grenades or whatever?
Sure in some situations a handgun is more effective than a machine gun but so too in other situations a machine gun would be more effective. Heck, go the other way, in some situations a stun gun may be more effective. You do not know ahead of time what you will face so you should be allowed to have whatever is out there that can provide for your “effective” defense because it is your right.
If you deem machine guns or hand grenades as going too far to allow the general public to have then why can’t I deem a handgun as too far?
(I will respond to your second part in another post…this one got too long.)