Coger is used for fuck in at least Mexico and Guatemala as well. I know this as I have spent time in both countries, and my girlfriend is Guatemalan. Yes, I know this very well.
I would use recoger on the other hand to mean pick up.
The only time you hear the difference is when someone does it on purpose when they think they are “now” pronouncing well.
There has been no difference for centuries.
What’s ‘Déjeme’?
Watch Mexican TV, especially ¿Qué dice la gente? I’ve even started getting some of the host’s jokes.
I’ve found No compraré este expediente, él me rasguño to be very useful as well. 
This is always important to know when you are traveling south of Mexico:
¡De hecho, soy el moniter de mierda del pasillo!
SSG Schwartz
Well… When I was taught Spanish (Castilan) in high school, I was told there was no difference.
Last time I took lessons, with a Colombian, she would correct me all the time, so I came to pronounce them differently.
What should I do?
Leave me. The phrase was “Leave me in peace or I’ll call the police!”
Thanks.
“I will not buy this document, it scratched me?” 
I can’t figure out what you’re trying to say here. The only thing I can come up with is perhaps you meant “I will not buy this file”, because expediente can mean file, except only in the sense of a document. Lima is the tool for filing.
Also note there would be an accent over the “o” in rasguñó. (rasguño can be a noun but that wouldn’t make sense in this context)
He ordered chicken and rice (ris).
Pronounce them differently like educated people do.
I like your sig combo, Sapo. 
I wonder if it is another one of those regional things. I know that when I was in school, the only time they differentiate it was for dictations, so that we knew which letter to write. But for the most part, nobody differentiate them. We were told, though, that in some other places people did differentiate.
Puerto Rico
BTW, a quick check at the Real Academia Española’s website declares that formally there is no difference in pronunciation, and pronouncing b like v is correct. And I trust RAE more than anyone else. 
linkie?
Is this for all regions? Now the RAE has gone regional (don’t like). There are large regions of Venezuela, Colombia and Argentina (that I am aware of, maybe others) that differentiate b and v. Saying that in Spanish they are the same is, at least, partially incorrect.
Alas, the RAE has been moving towards a reduction of the language so I would not be surprised that they are pushing for making b and v the same. A shame since I feel that all reductions of a language make it poorer.
www.rae.es , put the letter b or v on the “Diccionario Panhispánico de dudas” box, and read to your heart’s content. I actually checked there thinking I was wrong in what I was taught, but they even backed it up with some cites from 1700’s. In fact, they state that both consonants have sounded the same for centuries, and that the movement to differentiate them (imitating other languages) is more recent.
They do mention that it is regional in parts of South America, and that it is either due to ultracorrección, or to influence of the native languages (which probably do have different phonemes). They also mention that it may be different in regions of Spain where they speak a different language (Galicia, Cataluña), since, again, the sounds may be different in that language.
They also have some nice articles about other things (leísmo, laísmo, loísmo, dequeísmo, ceceo, seseo, etc.) which people are always questioning about.
BTW, since Puerto Rico is not part of South America, but Colombia and Venezuela are, I guess that is why for you it is correct, and for me… it doesn’t matter.
Which would explain why a Colombian would correct me.
OK, might as well ask here, since I’ve been hearing and reading about conflicting reports. How exactly should you pronounce a “b” and “v” in Spanish? For those that think they should be pronounced either the same or differently, please enlighten me.
In Rosetta Stone (Lat. Am.) at least, “b” and “v” sound like they’re the same, and they both vary from a slightly softer version of the English “b” to an extremely light English “v” (that almost sounds like a cross between a “v” and “w”). Does that sound about right? If so, for what regions does this apply?
It’s a lot like an English B, but a little softer.
And Rosetta Stone (Lat. Am.) doesn’t always pronounce them the same. Listen to the male voice say “veinte”. He clearly (and incorrectly) says VVVVeinte.
I spent two months in Guadalajara and encountered very few people who spoke English. At the time I visited (Late Spring-Early Summer) tourists were a rarity and Spanish was indispensable to getting around. I felt like quite literally the only white person there. There are definitely tourists, but most of them are Mexican tourists from other parts of the country. (More Americans were starting to show up toward the summer though – don’t know if the environment changes seasonally.) I would caution the OP against assuming he can get around without at least basic Spanish.