This card trick, which also goes by other names, has always baffled me. Any Dopers know of a simple explanation to this, so that my mind can be put at ease?
http://www.longwood.edu/staff/rileyje/educ%20547%20jim/cardtrick.htm
The simple explanation is that none of the cards in the first set appear in the second, so ‘Woogie’ always wins.
NONE of the first 6 cards are present in the later 5. Therefore any card you pick will be “gone”.
None of the cards in the second group are the same as the cards in the first. Thus, your card will always be missing, because you’re not concentrating on the originals.
My first reaction was:
Holy crap! How the hell can they do that?
Second reaction: None of the second group of cards are in the first group!
ETA: None of those other replies were there when I last looked, honest!
Hahahahahaha…
Wow. I can’t believe I fell for it. That’s amazing.
Colour me dumb.
Thanks guys
:smack: :smack: :smack::smack::smack::smack:
(And I was thinking of posting this on the Mensa website… Phew! THAT was a close one 
)
OK. . . that had me figuring for 2 tries. . . till I figured out it was impossible. . . and the truth was all that remained. Pretty funny.
It’s really amazing how easy it is to get fooled by this. We get threads about this probably every 6 months, and people are astounded that some website can pull off such a baffling trick like this. 
It’s very effective.
Note on this in theunofficial FAQ
That trick kind of reminds me of this one which we have discussed here before.
Takes a few trys before you catch on to what’s happening.
Yes, Hampshire. I knew about that one too. And if memory serves, the explanation here is a bit more complicated
(…or am I being made the fool yet again?:D)
The first few tries kind of had me going WTF…
But there was only one way it was possible. Sneaky.
Yes, we have discussed that one before.