I was just wondering how Nevada authorities and legislators justify that there is limited female prostitution there (I think is up to each county, under a certain population), but no male prostitution (hetero, or homo–take your pick).
I know where I live, Michigan, prostitution is illegal across the board: male or female. So there is no discrepancy there. But in Nevada it is limited solely to female prostitution. How do the people in power there justify this apparent hypocrisy?
Notice I put this in General Questions for a simple reason. I want to know the consensus of public officials on this question. I do not want to start up a debate on the morality and legality of prostitution.
Thank you in advance to all who reply:)