I frequently hear “misnomer” used instead of “misconception.” For example, “It’s a misnomer that you can contract swine flu by eating pork.”
Is this another case, like “nauseous” and “nauseated/nauseating,” where usage over time has changed two words with different meanings into synonyms?
Please tell me that’s not the case.
FWIW, I’ve never heard anyone mistake misnomer for misconception.
Maybe it’s a regional thing?
I just heard it tonight on an episode of House (from Stacy, the hospital’s legal counsel), which is what set me off. She said something like, “It’s a misnomer that you should do X instead of Y when giving testimony.”
I hear it, all too often. I think it’s one of those instances of a person trying to sound intelligent and missing the mark. I know I’ve heard it used by news anchors. I hope it isn’t becoming another “nauseous”.
For that matter, what’s the deal with people mis-using ‘nauseous’, ‘nauseated’, ‘nauseating’, etc? I’ve (I think) only ever heard them used correctly. In what way are these mis-used?
“Nauseous” means “inducing nausea.” “Nauseated” means “experiencing nausea.” Many people say, “I feel nauseous” rather than “I feel nauseated.”
“Nauseating,” OTH, is another matter. “That tuna noodle hot dish was nauseous” and “That tuna noodle hot dish was nauseating” are both correct.
Hmm. That never occurred to me, and as it turns out, I was accidentally correct:
That’s my point. The distinction between “nauseous” and “nauseated” has disappeared through usage. (Perhaps I should have said " ‘Nauseous’ used to mean…")
My question is whether or not the same thing is happening with “misnomer” and “misconception.”
Peerhaps we should consult Mrs. Malaprop?
I’m going with definition #2 and saying that using “misnomer” instead of “misconception” is not a malapropism.
I hear it all the time. I’ve killed over this.
Me too, usually from students. I can’t STAND when people say this.