A question arose in a thread in the Pit, and I figure that a good place to have a flame free discussion would be GD.
The situation is like this: A woman decides to get pregnant. Due to circumstances the only way for her to do that is to get sperm from a sperm donor. The mother, and her partner, are deaf. The mother deliberately and with conscious intent chooses a donor who will maximize the chance of the child being congentially deaf.
The question arises, what is her moral culpability in wilfully attempting to remove the possibility of hearing for her child?
Would it make a substantive difference if this disability was induced after birth, say, by surgically removing the child’s eardrums? What if via physical/chemical means this was done in utero?
In the same vein, what would the reaction be in similar situations? If, for instance, a mother deliberately started taking heroin before getting pregnant in order to have a child who was born an addict, or drank heavily in order to induce fetal alcohol syndrome, or deliberately looked for a sperm donor who would have a good chance of passing on any number of heritable diseases/disabilities of a physical or mental nature.
Are parents obligated to refrain from deliberately causing lifelong damage to a fetus/child/what-have-you that they plan on bringing to term? And just to lay my cards on the table, I believe it to be an absolutely abhorent action on the mother’s part and morally reprehensible to boot.
What do y’all think?