The LA Times ran an article today about the problems that female Moslem athletes face in the Olympics (or in general)
LA Times story (registration required) where it was estimated that there were 50 female Moslem athletes competing in Athens this summer.
But this writer in the NY Post Op-ed article by Amin Taheri the number of female Moslem athletes competing at the Olympics is at its lowest level since 1960.
However, in 1960 there were only a little over 600 women competing in the Olympic games. And in 2004, the number is well over 4000?
If there were more than 50 Moslem women competing in the Olympics in 1960, that would mean that presumably the USSR sent a lot of women from its Moslem republics to compete. Most of the larger Moslem countries today didn’t send very large teams (or any at all) in 1960.
Could it possibly that the percentage of Moslem athletes at the 1960 who were women is higher than it is now? (Which seems likely). But the NY Post article just mentions the number of athletes at being at a low level, although no number is specified (and the IOC does not keep track of the religious affiliation of any competitor).
And please no GD or Pit-like squwking about media sources.