OJ Simpson Convicted on Robbery, But Sentenced for Murder: Fair?

btw, taking hostages is also kidnapping in this state (and should be everywhere else IMO)

ok, with the factual stuff out of the way, let me respond to the OP

Orenthal Simpson has not been sentenced yet. His sentencing is now scheduled for 5 December 2008. He has been remanded to custody until sentencing. He is currently being held at the Clark County Jail, where he has his own 7’x14’ cell.

Your OP comes off as if sentencing had happened, not as the hypothetical situation that it is.

I think you mean “if they believed they could not leave the room”. I believe it went something like this: AOL Video - Serving the best video content from AOL and around the web - AOL.com

Are there degrees of kidnapping ? This can not be the same crime as taking a person against their will . If you are trying to rob people it would be necessary to have them stay while you do it. That seems alike a stretch.

OJ’s first name is Orenthal? I honestly never knew. I even thought you were referring to one of his accomplices at first, until I read your second post.

Orenthal. What an unusual name.

Anyways, considering that no one was harmed, but taking into account the fact the the acts were premeditated. I’d say the accused should spend no more than 5 years behind bars before he is paroled.

Unfortunately for him, he wrote a book named “If I did it, here is how it would have happened” about a double murder he was accused of. This made everybody involved adamant about not cutting him any slack.

He probably won’t spend that long in prison. Famous people seldom do.

Perhaps you should use links before you ask questions, eh. You can learn a lot by clicking and reading. :smiley:

Yep. Orenthal James Simpson. As Chris Rock said, if he hadn’t played football and been rich, we’d know him as Orenthal the Bus Driving Maniac, maybe.

Trouble is, nobody has ever unearthed a French actor by that name, either first name or surname, that I know of.

What an odd thing to say. I wrote, “Thus, in the example of the OJ Simpson robbery verdict, the judge could theoretically give OJ a harsher sentence.”

What do you think about the fairness of this procedure?

I really have no opinion on this procedure, for several reasons. Chief among them is the fact that it is impossible to know all of the factors that a judge takes into account when they set a sentence. We may know what they tell us, but that doesn’t mean other factors weren’t considered and then not enumerated.

Secondary is the fact that I seriously doubt it has ever happened. I certainly have never heard of it
And with the way you phrased the title, I think the question is both beggared and ridiculous. You might as well ask if we think its fair that the judge gave him a million dollar home and a Chinese baby girl. It hasn’t happened, and you provide no cites to show that a judge, any judge, anywhere, has ever tried to use an incident which was acquitted as a basis for imposing a harsher than normal sentence. (I’m not a lawyer, or a judge, so a cite that this has happened at all would be helpful.)

It strikes me that no judge would be stupid enough to write that down, as it would be a clear avenue for appeals to begin.

But judges don’t sentence people who are acquitted, so who cares if they think the defendant is guilty?

If a defendant is up on 3 charges, and is acquitted on 1 charge, what judge would be so stupid as to explicitly refer to the acquitted charge when explaining why they imposed the harshest sentence allowed?

In fact, are judges even required to explain why they chose a particular sentence?

This is something that happens all the time. And judges do–in fact, must–explicitly refer to the acquitted crime. Usually the Ass. U.S. Attorney expressly argues that the sentence should be harsher because of the acquitted crime. I have seen it with my own eyes, but if you don’t trust me, I’m sure you can google it.

What I’m interested in discussing is what you think of the fairness of this situation. Do you have any thoughts on that?

Judges do explicitly refer to the acquitted crime. In federal court (the only place I’ve personally witnessed this), the U.S. Attorneys will expressly argue that a sentence should be harsher because of an acquitted crime. I don’t have any non-subscription cites, but maybe someone else can dig something up.

(sorry about the double post–stupid server)

well ok then

In that light, then I have no problem with the concept.

I can see where a person might be persecuted unjustly and then have many unfounded incidents cited as a reason for a harsh(er) sentence, and that is troubling, but I can also see the sense that some people could just be bad apples who have walked on technicality after technicality.

I can see where a judge would say “Mr. Snoarder, you have been a drain on the resources of the system and so I am going to put you in jail for the maximum 10 years instead of the minimum 2, in the hope that that will finally have a corrective effective on your behaviour, and in the hope that it will prevent resources from being squandered on any possible future actions.” Seems like a good idea, from the perspective of the justice system.

I suppose we have to have some trust in our system, and in the people administering it. If there is reason to believe that things are inappropriate and malodorous, we have another system for appealing decisions to attempt to correct.

It’s not perfect, but it doesn’t seem inherently unfair to me either.