On the issue of whether officiating favors certain teams and individuals or not, there tend to be two sides, starkly divided:
One side insists that such theories are unfounded crackpot conspiracy theories and that the leagues (NFL, NBA, Premier League, FIFA, etc.) really do intend to have as high-quality and “pure/clean” a product as possible.
The other side will go so far as to claim that the refs outright make calls at times for the specific purpose of favoring of certain teams or players, and in fact often have instructions from the leagues to do so (LeBron, Dwayne Wade, Steelers, Packers, Yankees, Lakers, Man U, Barcelona, Real Madrid, etc. - i…e, the 2002 Kings-Lakers Western Conference Finals Game 6, Tim Donaghy etc.)
So what really is the straight dope on this? To take a middle ground on it, do the leagues want high-profile, revenue-generating teams or players to do well, but deliberately avoid writing down their instructions (to avoid leaving evidence,) and give wink-wink, nudge-nudge hints to refs - “Hey you better make sure the Lakers advance to the finals?”