kimera
January 11, 2006, 7:20pm
21
I did some more research and I found that what happened on May 2003 was that a study (also here ) suggested removal of the ENTIRE section of paraphilias. The reason for their removal is
Which sexual interests are proscribed often changes; masturbation, oral sex, anal sex and homosexuality were once considered mental disorders or symptoms of other mental disorders but are now typically accepted as part of the spectrum of healthy sexual expression. Similarly, there are conditions that were accepted as “normal” in the past but are now classified as mental disorders (e.g., hypoactive sexual desire, sexual aversion disorder and female orgasmic disorder). It is exceedingly difficult to eliminate historical and cultural factors from the assessment of unusual sexual interests. As such, empirically based, scientific definitions of healthy and pathological sexual behavior continue to elude us.
However, they note:
our suggestion to remove the paraphilias, which includes pedophilia, from the DSM does not mean that sexual acts with children are not crimes. . . Any interpretation of our work as supporting adult-child sexual interactions is misguided and wrong.
Of course, most pedophilies ignore the last part.