hmm…
toscar said:
Yes, if you steal a car then that is theft by definition because you’ve stolen the car. However the sentence you wrote above is a tautological spiral that wheels down to a small point and eventually disappears in a puff of smoke because it means nothing at all.
A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it (Section 1, Theft Act 1968)
This definition comprises several elements and the next step is to work through them:
A person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly - this is the sticking point, we’ll come back to it in a minute
appropriates property - the subject matter of the offence has to be property that is capable of being stolen eg wild animals cannot be stolen but domesticated animals can, wild foliage (like mushrooms or flowers) cannot be stolen but cultivated foilage can. Interestingly, dead bodies cannot be stolen although parts of a human body can.
Obviously Burrell did appropriate property.
belonging to another
No problem here, Diana’s possessions clearly were under the control of the executors and ultimately belonged to the beneficiaries of the will.
with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it
Hard to know. This is something that has to be shown in court. Whether Burrell intended to keep the objects or return them (as he claims) is something only he knows. This aspect goes to motive. This is where I think Casdave may have got it wrong. Casdave was suggesting the prosecution’s case failed because of lack of motive.
The prosecution’s case didn’t fall on motive, it fell on dishonesty. Burrell told the Queen that he had some “papers” (although he didn’t tell her about all the other stuff he was holding such as jewellery, photos etc).
The prosecution’s case was relying on the fact that he hadn’t told anyone that he had appropriated property and that he was therefore holding this property dishonestly.
The fact he told the Queen that he had some stuff blew a hole in the dishonesty aspect of the offence, not the motive aspect of the offence.
We don’t know what his true motive was because a) it was never proven in court and b) we are not God.
Maybe he intended to give some of the stuff back (the stuff he told the Queen about) and keep the rest. Maybe he intended to give all the stuff back or maybe he intended to give none of the stuff back, who knows?
There is something mighty fishy about this case however. Why didn’t the Queen mention this conversation she had with Burrell before the trial got going (I’m afraid I don’t buy the “she was too busy with other things” argument)?
Why did Burrell suddenly “remember” this conversation after the Queen told the court about it? You’re telling me he simply forgot this conversation, this all-important conversation that would have got him off?
Apparently he mentioned having a conversation with the Queen during police questioning but he never expanded on it much. His lawyers would have grilled him relentlessly about this conversation precisely in order to disprove the dishonesty aspect of the theft offence. It seems funny that he only remembered the details of this conversation after the Queen “reminded” him of it.
OK maybe he was loyal so he kept quiet, but loyal enough to go to prison for 7 years and have his character permanently ruined? To be forever labelled as the butler who stole Princess Diana’s belongings after she died?
The fact he made no move to sell the stuff means little, maybe he hoped to hang on to it for a while until the fuss had died down.
The inescapable suggestion that I am making is that maybe this little “conversation” the two of them had, Burrell and the Queen, was manufactured to get Burrell off because the trial was getting too damaging for the royal reputation, and maybe it was about to get uglier, so the Queen decided she’d better stop it pronto.
Of course, this is just idle speculation, I have no proof. But I’m not the only one left wondering, several MPs have been asking questions along similar lines.