Please explain/name systems of throne succession to me

The rule which governs (or governed in the past) the inheritance of the throne in most European monarchies is usually referred to as male primogeniture: The first male child of the current ruler inherits the throne after the parent’s death.

Sounds like a simple system to understand, but it can become more complex if the heir apparent dies before the monarch. AFAIK the British system is that in this case, the oldest son of the deceased heir will be the next in line. Hence, if Prince Charles died before his mother, his son William would succeed the Queen upon her death; the next in line would be Charles’ second son, Harry.

Is there any term to label this rule, in contrast to an equally plausible principle where the next in line would be the oldest surviving son of the monarch (Prince Andrew, in the case of Britain, overriding his nephews William and Harry)? If the latter rule also prefers male over female children, it could be called as male primogeniture as well.

The reason for asking this is that I read the texts of several 19th century European constitutions which simply state that the succession to the throne follows the principle of male primogeniture. You’d presume that statutes would take a little bit more care when it comes to setting up the rules for questions of such importance. After all, the probability that the difference between these two variants tips the scales is considerable enough to make precise provisions desirable.

This Wiki site gives a good introduction to the various systems of succession.

In male primogeniture, the monarch is survived by his eldest son, if any, or eldest daughter if no sons; if he had no children, he is succeeded by his eldest brother, if any, or eldest sister if no brothers; if none of the above survive, he is succeeded by his eldest uncle-on-the-royal-side, or eldest aunt, if no uncles – but if the heir so identified has precedeased the monarch and left heirs of his own, they succeed in like manner as if the throne had passed to the deceased heir and then to them.

So if Prince Charles died tomorrow, Prince William would become Elizabeth’s heir, not Prince Andrew or Princess Anne. And if Charles, Elizabeth, William, and Harry died in that order over the course of a month or two, the throne would pass Elizabeth > William > Harry > Andrew.

In countries like Sweden that have adopted strict primogeniture, the throne passes to the eldest child, the eldest sibling in the absence of children, the eldest royal uncle or aunt in the absence of children or siblings, etc.

In countries where the Salic Law prevails (and I think at this point there are no Salic monarchies left), the throne passes solely in the male line, no matter if the monarch has daughters, sisters, or aunts – it goes to his male heir following the “male primogeniture” scheme without the “or sisters if no brothers” type clauses.

Elective monarchies, I think now also extinct, choose the monarch by vote from among members of the royal house or houses. (Is this the system in Saudi Arabia, or does it pass by primogeniture?)

The old Varangian system passes the throne to the eldest male male-line relative of the monarch, regardless of relationship. So if Ivan, Igor, and Illya are brothers, and Ivan has sons Oleg and Sasha, and Igor has a son Vladimir intermediate in age between Oleg and Sasha, the order of succession is Ivan > Igor > Illya > Oleg > Vladimir > Sasha. And if Igor dies before Ivan, it passes by his kids to Illya, then back to Oleg and Vladimir in tht order.

Several monarchs have left their thrones to relatives who would not have been their heir under national custom by will. This has generally not worked out well. (Cf. the Tsars, the War of the Spanish Succession, etc.) What has worked has been for the childless monarch to adopt his chosen heir as his son. (Cf. the “Good” Flavian Emperors in Rome, Bernadotte in Sweden).

Japan follows Salic Law. As does Liechtenstein. Luxembourg follows “semi-Salic” law which means that if all male dynasts die the throne passes to the nearest female relative of the last sovereign. Russia, Bavaria, and Austria-Hungary also did this.

[QUOTE=Polycarp]
…Elective monarchies, I think now also extinct, choose the monarch by vote from among members of the royal house or houses. (Is this the system in Saudi Arabia, or does it pass by primogeniture?)…QUOTE]

Samoa, Cambodia, Malaysia, and Vatican City are all elective monarchies. In Malaysia the Paramount Ruler is elected for a 5 year term by the Conference of Rulers from among it’s members. In Cambodia the Throne Council must elect a new monarch from among the Royal familty after a demise in the crown. In Vatican City the College of Cardinals must elect a new Pope from a theoretical pool of all baptized males.

I don’t think Saudi Arabia has any official succession laws. After Fahd died, Abdullah took the throne basically because he was the most powerful prince and no-one said he couldn’t.

Thanks everybody for their contributions. One clarifying question: If William had a son, and both Charles and William died before Elizabeth, would William’s child become heir? If William succeeds to the role of Charles as heir even before the Queen’s death, I guess it would be consequent that this role would pass on to William’s son in this case.

As far as I know, the United Arab Emirates are also an elective monarchy, but it has been a custom to always elect the ruler of Abu Dhabi as head of state and the ruler of Dubai as head of government.

I’ve read about this system of succession in fiction books, but I didn’t realize that it had any historical precedent. Wouldn’t this tend to result in very short reigns? If, at any given time, there are, say, 25 royal males on average, and the average lifespan is 75, it seems like this would lead to a monarch reigning for only 3 years on average before dying himself.

There’s a lot of weird systems out there, and none of them were always strictly adhered to, as there are many cases of monarchs trying (with mixed success) to establish a recognized heir in contravention to the common practices of their realm.

Salic primogeniture was very common in Europe and among many monarchical societies, especially prior to the Renaissance. Under salic primogeniture females simply cannot succeed, they do not have any rights of succession whatsoever, and, succession can’t be traced through females either in many cases.

Semi-salic primogeniture was also common, and in practice females could not succeed under that system either.

An example of the difference between salic and semi-salic primogeniture:

King William has three sons (Henry, John, Richard) and one daughter (Mary.) He also has a younger brother (Edward.)

If all three of William’s sons die before him, and if none of those sons had sons (or if their sons had died, too) then succession is traced through Edward’s line. If Edward himself has died before William, then Edward’s son succeeds.

Under semi-salic primogeniture, in the same situation, before succession is traced through Edward it is traced through any sons of Mary’s, meaning Mary’s sons could inherit, and they would have precedence to inherit over Edward, but Mary herself could not succeed.

In many cases it’s obvious why salic primogeniture is preferable here to semisalic primogeniture. Daughters were typically married off to other nobles, sometimes other royal houses. If William, who is the King of Scotland had married his daughter Mary off to someone in the French royal family who happened to become King, then upon William’s death the King of France’s son stands to inherit the Scottish crown (and the French one–eventually, obviously.)

A lot of different terms are used interchangeably and with different meanings when it comes to labeling laws of succession. What I call salic or semi-salic has different names according to different people. What I refer to as salic primogeniture is roughly synonymous with what is called agnatic primogeniture and what I call semi-salic primogeniture is roughly synonymous with what is called Quasi-Salic succession.

The British system is referred to both as male-preference primogeniture and agnatic-cognatic primogeniture. Basically it means succession goes to the oldest male first, but the oldest daughter can inherit if there is no oldest son, for example.

Full cognatic primogeniture is a system by which the oldest child, regardless of gender, succeeds; and is seen in Sweden I know for sure and possibly some other European monarchies recently.

Primogeniture definitely became the norm in Europe but it was not always so.

In pre-conquest England there was a land inheritance system called “Gavelkind” in which land was divided up equally among all the male heirs. This system also allowed land to be willed to a successor as well. Similar systems were seen in Wales, Ireland, and Scandinavia especially during the Dark Ages. Salic gavelkind would equally divide the land between the male children, semi-salic gavelkind allows inheritance to also be traced through the female children, meaning a son of a daughter would also be entitled to some inheritance. Typically if your inheritance traced through the female line you only received half a normal share.

Gavelkind may even be more properly classified a a type of salic patrimony, which was itself just basically a system which divided land up between male heirs. This was the norm especially in clannish societies in the more “unsettled” parts of Europe during the dark ages (or middle ages if you prefer.) The Frankish kingdom was divided between male heirs in this way.

The benefits of a gavelkind type system where you divide up lands between the surviving sons is obvious, there is less chance of brothers warring against one another for the crown if all the brothers get some piece of the pie after the father’s death. The downside is this tended to fracture a realm more and more to the point where you could not meaningfully look at it as one united kingdom. France/Germany were both very fragmented politically and regional nobles for many centuries wielded far more power than any centralized monarch, who was often little more than a figurehead or just simply the most powerful noble amongst a group of peers. Norway was also likewise fractured by non-primogeniture type inheritance laws from the 1000s-1100s A.D.

Elective succession tends to be highly specific to the realm/kingdom/country in question. The Holy Roman Emperor was elected by electors. Rulers of certain states within the Empire had voting rights, rulers of lesser states were typically not electors.

The HRE was more of a confederation and its ruler was more of a figurehead as a leader of the loose confederation. Although once the Habsburgs more or less “acquired” continuous succession of the Empire they clearly became the dominant noble house in the HRE and wielded a great deal of influence within it, but still did not truly rule over the entire HRE as though it was a unified state.

Poland-Lithuania’s elected monarchy was a bit more democratic, instead of just a few of the most powerful nobles having elector rights (as was the case in the HRE) every noble that bothered to assemble for the election could vote. During the Jagiellon dynasty there was sort of an elective system, but Poland-Lithuania was in practice ruled by a single dynasty during that time, when the last Jagiellon king died with no heirs to speak of Poland-Lithuania established a truly elective monarchy in which all the nobles in the realm had a right to decide on the future monarch. Usually several thousand nobles cast votes, and consequently the monarchs of Poland-Lithuania were somewhat weak. Eventually outside powers even began to exert influence in the elections to put up puppet rulers when Poland-Lithuania became one of the weaker states in Europe.

Yes. Toward the end of Queen Victoria’s reign, the published orders of inheritance for the throne listed the first three heirs, in order, as the Prince of Wales (later Edward VII), the Duke of York (later George V), and Prince Edward of York (? – not sure I have the proper style here) (later Edward VIII and Duke of Windsor).

In point of fact, Louis XIV of France (le roi soleil) was succeeded by his great-grandson Louis XV (le bien-aimé), aged not quite 5. When the future Louis XV was born in 1710, he was third in line, with a healthy father (the Duke of Burgundy) and grandfather (the Grand Dauphin) ahead of him if anything should happen to the elderly but healthy Sun King. But his grandfather died suddenly in 1711, and his parents contracted smallpox and died within weeks of each other in 1712, leaving him next in line for the throne, which he inherited on his great-grandfather’s death in 1715.

Yes, Edward was Prince Edward of York at his birth (as his father, as second son of the Monarch, was the Duke of York). Of course, later on he became the Prince of Wales, as first son of the Monarch.

Of course the big question that will arise over the next few years is if William has a daughter before a son. So far, there hasn’t been any urgent need to address the outdated ‘men first’ rule in the British Monarchy, as both the Queen and Charles have had sons first. There’s a feeling that the law may be changed when William marries, so that it doesn’t become a political hot potato if he has a girl first.

It does now. King Abdullah proclaimed a new succession law just last month.

In the past the new king designated the Crown Prince, but there was undoubtedly a fair amount of consultation with other family members. Abdullah was named as Crown Prince upon King Fahd’s accession in 1982, so there was no doubt that he would succeed.

The general practice in Saudi Arabia has been to pass the throne from older brother to younger brother, although a few princes have been skipped, which is the Varangian system described above by Polycarp. This certainly has the potential to lead to a series of short reigns, but Khalid ruled for 7 years and Fahd for 23.

The same thing happened in Sweden. Carl XVI Gustaf’s first-born child was a girl, Princess Victoria. After she was born Swedish lawmakers began the process of changing the Swedish constitution (females had no right to inheirit the throne, but could be elected if there were no availible male heirs). In the meantime a royal son was born and became heir apparent only to be stripped of his title a few months later. The King was reportadly very unhappy over this.