I’ve been reading the recent Pit and GD threads about homosexuality, and I decided to ask outright a question which I touched on elsewhere. In Mr. Visible’s Pit thread about his nephew he talks about what his nephew will face during his remaining years of high school. Now, I’m a Christian, one who puts her greatest focus on the teachings of Christ. I also know what it’s like to be an outcast in a high school in a small town in America. Therefore, I believe that Mr. Visible’s statement that his nephew will “endure three years of solitude, torment, isolation and rage” if he stays in his current school is reasonable. It certainly mirrors my own, and I was straight.
Here’s my question. In Mark 7, Christ teaches about what’s clean and unclean. Among other things, it contains the justification for Christians not keeping kosher. In Mark 7:20-23, Jesus says the following:
“Sexual immorality” is mentioned here, but so are greed, malice, deceit, slander, arrogance and folly. The high school kids who will torment Mr. Visible’s nephew, or, from my experience, anyone who doesn’t fit in, are surely guilty of actually committing these sins, yet they will do so because Mr. Visible’s nephew has the potential to commit what they regard as the sin of sexual immorality. When their feet are held to the fire, as it were, I’ve read many Christians who claim homosexuality is sinful say that, technically, it’s only homosexual acts that are sinful. Why is it all right to condemn someone for a sin they are tempted to commit, yet nothing is said about sins which are clearly and unambiguously designated so by Christ and which are actually being committed.
To me, being tempted to commit a sin alone is not reason enough for condemnation. According to Christianity, Christ was tempted and, if He had not been tempted, I would not be a Christian. By taunting, showing cruelty, rejecting and isolating a person, by my moral standards, people are actively and willfully sinning. By confessing that he or she is attracted to the same sex, even if I considered homosexuality a sin, I would only consider a person to be confessing that he or she is tempted to commit a sin. If having sex with a person one could not have a commitment with is a sin (in my book that is), it’s one I’ve been tempted to commit a few times myself and I do not, I cannot consider the temptation in and of itself sinful.
So, why do some people justify actual sins against people who admit only to potential sins? Does a homosexual orientation outweigh actual gossip? If so, how does one justify this?
By the way, please don’t limit this thread to homosexuality and gossip within a Christian context – I’m genuinely curious about actual vs. potential sin. That was just the most glaringly obvious example I could come up with. I’m also curious about non-Christians’ take on the whole issue.
Respectfully,
CJ