Whew!So I’m finally a paying member after lurking for so long. This feels good!
Anyway, I’ve got a GQ to start things off as a bona fide member. A few days ago in one of my classes, we were doing groupwork. The subject of conversation somehow drifted to birth control and abortion. One member of the group said that women were “stupid” for getting pregnant (bristles) and, more interestingly, claimed that there has been no documented case of pregnancy when two types of birth control are used in conjunction with each other (I’m thinking he was speaking primarily of condoms and the Pill).
So what’s the truth? I’m almost certain that there have been cases. His reasoning seemed to be that since condoms are something like 97% effective, and the Pill 99%, then using them both is infallible.
IIRC, those effectiveness rates are with “perfect use”. The “typical use” success rates for each are very different, I’m thinking something like 95% for the Pill and 89% for condoms. With more true-to-life stats, it makes the possibility a bit more likely.
There is a thread here somewhere with a link to perfect- vs. typical-use success rates for different contraceptives. I’ll try to scare it up somehow if I don’t forget.
Just the one for now. I can’t find anything on pregnancy despite multiple contraceptives but in a study of European and Thai women is was found that:
[ul]Of 4035 European women interviewed 578 (14.3%) became pregnant despite birth control[/ul]
[ul]Of 1496 Thai women interviewed 152 (10.2%) became pregnant despite birth control[/ul] http://humrep.oupjournals.org/cgi/reprint/13/2/471.pdf
That was the point I was (badly) trying to make. Even the best odds make this a statistically possible event and one that has probably occurred many times.
Your more realistic numbers give a probablity of 0.55% or 1 in 180 by my reckoning. :eek:
Note that the effectiveness percentages are for women using them over the course of a year - ie 1% of women using the pill get pregnant, with perfect use, during an entire year. It is not the percentage per intercourse.
With typical use, but using both, a 1 in 180 chance is more than 99.5% effective for women using them, if I did my math right.
ggurl, I’m pretty sure I posted some such stats in a thread which I believe also detailed my own experience of getting pregnant with my son the first time I had sex, using a sponge, additional spermicide and a condom, but I don’t remember the title of the thread, and can’t seem to come up with the right search phrase for it.
So, in response to the OP, yes, it has happened. At least once. In 1992. In the midwest USA. For, yes, about 20 minutes*. :smack:
I’d like to introduce you to my son- Tinkleberry. We were using FAM (not the rythym method) & condoms, and I managed to get pregnant the second time we had sex.
I have a friend who’s son was conceived on the Pill.
Oh, it happens.
Look, male condoms are 86 to 98% effective at preventing pregnancy, and the pill is 95 to 99.9% effective at preventing pregnancy if used correctly. So the chances of pregnancy combining these methods are between 7 in 1000 and really bloody slim.
That doesn’t include common Pill errors such as taking the Pill at different times of the day, the woman on the pill being >150 lbs, a course of antibiotics, etc, all of which lower or negate its effectiveness.
Sounds like your friend believes he is invulnerable or more clever than biology. Such hubris makes him even more likely to wind up with an unplanned pregnancy. He’s also not someone to take to Vegas either.
Same happened to me, orthonovum 1/80 and a rubber of indeterminate brand [IIRC a trojan] 1982. Yes there must have been a leak in the rubber, and no I was a]taking the pill for longer than 6 months regularly b]not on any other medications
The rubber was in response to me getting pregnant on orthonovum 1/80 3 years before, when used properly and not taking any other med…
I got my tubes tied. 15 years later I got pregnant again. [style was sneak in, rubberband the tubes and let them scar shut…] Got segments of tubes removed. Now it will take an act of god to get me preggers…or else i will have to get the ovaries out=\
inkleberry, given that you were using a condom, I can only assume that you were on a potentially fertile day of your cycle. So it’s really only a condom failure, isn’t it? Or was there some other reason you would use a condom on a non-fertile day?
How long had you been an FAMer? Did you use one sign or all three? I’m curious simply because I haven’t met anyone who had a failure of FAM before. Of course, the numbers verify it’s possible, I just haven’t met any myself. (Have met LOTS of condom failure parents, however!)
Please feel free to tell me it’s none of my business, of course. Just wonderin’.
Apparently I am my own cite. My mother just told me that I was conceived by accident while using a condom, and while she had been in the pill for 3 months.
The above link is to the Consumers Report website. They did a comparison to condoms and also added in that little bit (at the link) with the stats for all contraceptive methods.
Has the “perfect” vs “real world” figures being mentioned
We had only been together for mumbles. I always used condoms with new partners until everyone had clean STD/HIV tests.
I had been a FAMer for over a year. I had used FAM exclusively from early 2003 until I got pregnant on 3/24/04. I used mucous, temperature, and always had ovulation pain. I sometimes verified with urine ovulation predictors just to be sure my sense was as it should be. From 3/19-3/23 I was clearly in the danger zone. 3/24 was 24 hours of dryness. We had sex with a condom late in the evening of 3/24. Likely by the time sperm actually hit egg it was 3/25. Which would have been 30+ hours after ovulation.
The doctor told us the odds of this baby exisiting were very very very slim. We asked what more we could do next time. He said, “nothing I know of.”
Now I’m on the mini-Pill, LAM, AND condoms! If I get pregnant now, I will sue god.
