Although the subject matter of this question is GD material, I ask it here in GQ because, I believe, this question does have a definitive answer.
Was public education not conceived of and instituted as a means of allowing poor (that is, not rich enough to afford private schools) kids access to education? IOW, at some point in the history of public education, wasn’t it true that public education was considered an alternative? Or, to put it another way, private education was considered the norm and public education was considered the alternative? Nowadays, private schools are considered alternatives to public education. IOW, public education is the norm and private education is the alternative. When and why did these attitudes reverse themselves?
And while we’re on the subject, back in the days before public education became the standard, what were the odds of a public-educated student getting into college (compared to those of his privately-educated colleagues)?
Private school was considered the norm for a very, very small elite who could afford schooling. Before public eduction came along very few people had any formal education. I believe public education was orginally envisioned as a way to educate the masses.
Considering public school was designed for the ‘rest of us’, very few went on to college. If you couldn’t afford a private education in elementary and high school years there’s not much of a chance you could afford college either. A large percentage of the populace going to college is unique to only the last few generations.
The above is in reference to the history of US public education. I’m not sure how it works in other countries.
I’m afraid you’re going to put some dates around your “before” nad “after” positions before we can come up with a good response.
Do you want to go back to late-medieval or Renaissance Europe? Do you want to start in the 18th century?
At least for the U.S., public education actually preceded the Constitution: the Northwest Ordinance of 1787 established that each township (the base unit of pre-city government) set aside one section to be sold by the government and the proceeds used to fund schools. The Land Grant universities date to the 1850’s and 1860’s, so college-level schooling seems to have made a flip-flop in our perceptions, (although I don’t know whether William and Mary was chartered as a provincial/state school or as a private school in the tradition of Harvard and Yale).
What level of education are you looking at, and when do you think the change occurred?
William and Mary was chartered as a private school in 1693 (not in the tradition of that upstart Yale, though; it didn’t come along 'til 1700) and became private much later – 1920’s, IIRC. UNC-Chapel Hill, which was founded in 1793, claims to be the first public university in the US.
And for once in my life, I know something tomndebb didn’t! WAHOOOOOO!!!
Reading was very important to the Puritans in New England. Children were expected to be taught to read, either by parents, by tutors, or in private or church-run schools. Parents who did not see to their educational needs could lose custody of their children. Massachusetts passed a law in 1647 ordering the construction of semi-public schools in all large towns. Tuition was paid by parents if they could afford it, and by tax collections if they could not. Tutition-free secondary education did not become the norm until sometime after the Civil War.