Quantum Mechanics and Non-Locality

Factual Questions
1

Hey all.
I have a question about a subject i find very interesting but also that i dont have alot of knowledge about.

In non-Locality its said that:
"At the quantum level, “particles” do not possess definite, deterministic qualities until they are measured. "

Also:

“Quantum theory tells us that in a system of two particles having total spin zero, the spins of the particles about any axis will always be correlated – will be opposite – even though they only exist as tendencies, or potentialities, before the measurement is taken. This correlation means that the measurement of the spin of particle 1, along any axis, provides an indirect measurement of the spin of particle 2 without in any way disturbing that particle. (Capra, 1982, p. 84).”

My question is how do we know they exist as potentialities in this “limbo” state? as we presumably have to measure them to find out and the act of measuring them causes them to choose (if ya get my meaning). Could it not be that there always opposites but are already determined before measuring?

As you can see im a newbie to this so go easy with the flames :slight_smile: .

2

If thewy were already determind before the measurement it would be expected that it be would possible to predict the outcome of the measuremnt. It isn’t…

Also there is a thing known as Bell’s inequality which shows that if you try to construct a theory which is free from this indeterminance you find that this theory must have some weird properties such of it’s own such as non-locality. This is problematic when trying to intergrate such a theory into special relativity.