Question about how sodomy charges were handled in the 50s...

Check, so…he’s okay?

They didn’t do that to adults that molested little girls?

Did they do that in situations where no children were involved, and it was just two male adults together?

I’m not saying that homosexuals had it easy, but I think a lot of the violence and hatred against them is exaggerated.

You have no idea what you’re talking about. None.

They did do that in situations involving consenting adults. Sodomy was an actual crime in many states until very recently. It was prosecuted right up to this decade.

I remember that article. It’s a pretty bad situation over there – single men (and married men whose wives are on the rag, on vacation, sick, etc.), who are still considered straight, use bottoms (the “gay” ones) for sex and break their hearts, because according to the strict interpretation of Sharia law, two men can be alone together but a man can’t be alone with a woman who isn’t his wife. It’s pretty much non-stop hypocrisy all the way around. Bottoms basically serve the same function as tissues over there, apparently–they can be used for sex, but if they got in a real relationship with a man, they’d probably get lashed or stoned or worse.

Still is, if you count most of the Middle East and Africa, among other places.

Yeah…I’ve always wondered about that.

In retrospect, that book worked a bit too well…until I was in 2nd grade or so, I wouldn’t even talk to relatives at family reunions because they fit the definition (in my mind, anyway) of a “stranger”.

Er, not to say that tissues are lashed and stoned. I think you guys knew what i meant.