I hadn’t intended for this to be a place for retroactive pittings. But off the top of my head, this one springs to mind (and from a confirmed troll):
Why is there a greater stigma against drug use in non-western cultures?
Because in order to properly engage with that thread, one would have to first grant that there is a greater stigma against drug us in “non-western cultures” or, indeed, that there is some level of uniformity in “non-western cultures.” To say nothing of whether “western culture” exists and has a uniform take on drug use.
So much to unpack in that thread title. So many genuinely contestable conclusions taken for granted in the opening premise.