Rape Laws and how they have changed

That is more of a general contractual right. If the wife had the flu and was puking in the toilet every 20 minutes, would the law demand that she put out? I have no evidence, but can’t imagine that.

Likewise, if I pay you $3000 and you agree to paint my house, I have a legal right to demand a house painting. But if you fail to do so on my terms, I can’t point a gun at you, shove a paint brush in your hand, or kidnap you and haul you to my house.

There is a difference between a legal obligation and forcible private enforcement of that obligation. If back in the day the sheriff, when confronted with my private enforcement of our painting contract, would have pulled his pants up over his beer gut and said that the law wouldn’t get involved, then if that was a common reply, I would agree with you. But I’ve seen no evidence that forcible rape of one’s wife was treated that way.

Supreme Court case cited up-thread not good enough for you?

I suppose it’s heartening in a way that society has changed so much that we have posters in this thread simply unable to believe, against all evidence, that marital rape was legal until fairly recently.

Which one? I only see a California Supreme Court case saying that the sex of the offender does not offend equal protection or due process. Do you have another?

In South Carolina - it depends -

I’d assume that if I were puking every twenty minutes, then I wouldn’t have the strength to fight off and aggravated physical force would not be necessary, therefore it would not be rape.

I’m not sure what you mean by that. There’s nothing on the books ordering women to have sex with their husbands. There were laws – and still are, though not in at least most of the U.S. – specifically excluding spouses from the definition of rape.

One was quoted at the top of this very thread, by you.

Nope, re read it especially 1a(c) and 2a(c)

B is the child and 2a(c) makes it a crime to make him/her penetrate any other person in a sex act.

Actually, that is almost precisely what did happen.Read this and tell me that if only the assaults were part of a rape the police would have intervened. And pay attention to this footnote on page 7 of the excerpt of the decision regarding the allegation of a policy to provide inadequate or no protection to women complaining of abuse by spouses

 The law didn't demand that the wife put out, and the written law may or may not have (depending upon the exact time ) allowed her husband to beat her into submission. What happened is that police and courts declined to intervene in a private dispute, just like your sheriff and the practice of non-intervention was widely known. But it was only between husband and wife and it wasn't specific to rape. if my husband pointed a gun or beat me to force me to paint the house, he would not have been arrested. If you or any other person did the same thing, you would have been arrested.

Oregon v. Rideout. Post 29 in this thread.

It was a legal standard too. If the wife left, yes, she could be brought back by the authorities. Even if she was fleeing physical or sexual abuse, she had no legal right to leave her husband unless she was actually getting a divorce.

It wasn’t that long ago that you couldn’t get a divorce unless you could prove adultery or a couple of other immoral acts. We forget what times were like before no-fault divorces.

That isn’t a Supreme Court case, its an Oregon case.

I’ll admit that I wasn’t alive in those days, but I’m still incredulous. Do you have any cite for a husband going to Sheriff Andy Taylor and demanding that he haul his wife back home because she is staying at her sister’s house in violation of the marriage agreement?

And then Andy says, “Absolutely, sir. Your wife can’t do that to you!” and he then (with force presumably) picks her up and drops her off at home. What if she doesn’t stay? Could she be charged with a crime?

To be fair, really over-the-top abusive husbands were not well regarded at the time either. Just that sex-on-demand by itself was not considered abuse.

If Sherriff Andy found the dude distasteful he may have said, “Look, I can tell her she must come back but I can’t actually arrest her, it’s a domestic matter between the two of you.”

I don’t know if she was forcibly picked up…but she could be charged with abandoning her husband. He could then divorce her and get everything, including total custody of any kids.

She probably had a high school diploma, at most, and absolutely no job skills or experience. Remember, she didn’t have credit in her own name, either. So she’s homeless, jobless, and if she’s lucky, her parents or family will take her in, though she is considered a bad woman.

This link is for England, not for the US, but still, pay attention to that sixth and seventh paragraph:

Oops. Read my previous comment as: Oregon case cited up-thread not good enough for you?

You may wish to look up the term “skimmington”. It wasn’t just extremely abusive men who were regarded harshly, but male victims too.

From “The Legal Subjection of Men”, printed in 1908:

In short, yes, a man could at one point have his wife brought back to him by force. But at the same time, and even after that practice was abolished, a man could also be dragged back to his wife by the police if he tried to escape her. By that time divorce was also much easier for a woman to obtain and didn’t involve the presumption that she would end up destitute in the gutter, but rather that she would receive maintenance payments, custody of the children, and any property she had before marriage, which had traditionally been forbidden from being transferred to the ownership of the husband.

In addition to which, a man could be forced to marry by an accusation that a proposal had been made, which a woman could not. To break of an engagement was an offence, although only for the man, and a woman’s word was generally enough evidence for a court that an engagement had taken place.

Also, although it may be true (per Lynn Bodoni’s link) that adultery wasn’t grounds for divorce for a woman, as cruelty wasn’t for a man, a man who committed adultery with a married woman could be sued by the husband, which was not the case with the sexes reversed. And of course a man was responsible for the debts of his wife, while her property was protected.