I’m probably picking at a scab wound better left unopened, but
this has been eating at me: I missed something because I was travelling outside the country, and I’ve been hesitating to ask, but…
When I left the country, IIRC, the Supreme Court agreed to hear the issue about the Florida election, how many counties to recount, etc. But, IIRC, the SUpreme Court suddenly decided NOT to hear the case afterall. Am I correct? What exactly happened to bring the Election 2000 fiasco to some definite resolution?
Here is a summary, but I’m not sure how unbiased it is. From my own memory I recall that the basic fight was Gore wanted recounts in only certain counties - dense with democrats - where statistically he’d gain votes. On top of that, the people counting the votes were using different methods (chads, anyone?). The Supreme Court ruled that if there’s a recount, it must be of the entire state, not just specific counties. They also said the recount method must be exactly the same. But since the order was given 2 hours before the Dec 12 deadline, there was no time for a recount of the entire state. But read that summary, they say it better than me!
Excuse me, are you like the head of the Republican Party? I am asking a factual question, but I was humble enough to put it in the IMHO Board. Why does it deserve the Pit? I was not venting until now!
Maybe they wanted to move this thread to the Pit in advance, before the arguing begins in earnest. Although it doesn’t look like anyone’s arguing yet. I don’t know. I was in the country, and I still don’t quite know why they didn’t just do the stupid recount. But it’s a bit late now. Hopefully, it won’t happen again.
