Religious questions (Christianity)

Thanks, **stkelly52 **. I think you nailed it.

From Opus1’s post (the Gospel of Philip):

What I get from the above is that the disciples were not objecting to Jesus kissing Mary Magdalene (on the mouth or anywhere else). They “expressed disapproval” because apparently Jesus was showing favoritism to Maggie (“Why do you love her more than all of us?”), the implication being, “You chose us guys to be your disciples, but you apparently have, or at least show, more affection for a mere companion (or hanger-on) who is a woman, and one who is an ex-hooker, to boot! Howcum?”

This is sort of in keeping with the disciples arguing over which of them will be the greatest in heaven. They expected some kind of pecking order re: divine favor, and were disappointed when Jesus turned their notions upside-down.

In any case, while I don’t know First Century Israeli standards re: kissing women on the mouths, this is a far cry from “Frenching,” IMHO. Otherwise, Philip would have written, “And lo, the kisses were sloppy and abounded in tongues and swapping of spit. And the disciples were sore offended and went hither to rent hot videos and cool their jets no little time.”

My $.02