Although I didn’t see any specific instance that this violates in the Terms of Use I’m sure that someone will happily point it out if I missed it.
I’d like to remove the abstract. I have an SO for having consensual sex with a 16 year old female when I was 29. I have never denied my culpability, responsibility or sentence. I was given 10 years just as an FYI. But I have a question for the board as a whole that removes the abstract nature of this thread.
Age of consent was 17.
She was sexually active before me.
She had a crush on me and found that I was going through a divorce.
She pursued me.
She was quite physically mature and had a healthy understanding of her sexual appetite.
I was emotionally vulnerable at the time. Divorce tends to take its toll on a psyche.
I said I was flattered but said no at first. But I did fail to remove myself from the situation. I’ll be honest, the attention was gratifying.
I was not attracted to her because of her age, rather despite it. In fairness, I was attracted to the attention.
I had to take a rather intensive treatment program prior to release.
By my therapist’s own definition, I was not an SO. Her (and I want to emphasize that part, HER) description was, to put it bluntly, that I was an idiot.
Clinically I could only be diagnosed with ephebophilia or hebephilia. However, neither actually fits squarely.
Depending on the definition (and a little bit of research on the two will show there is a spectrum for both), which are evolving with understanding, the following apples.
Ephebophilia is sexual attraction to post-pubescent females between 15 and 19 years of age (and gender bias is also noticeably prevalent) but carries with it the connotation of a brain chemistry abnormality making the attraction unavoidable. This didn’t apply. As a general rule, I find people in that age range annoying, regardless of gender, and honestly don’t even like taking to them.
Hebephilia is becoming more an attraction to pubescent females. Just budding so to speak. (At the time that she offered her opinion the definition was much closer to ephebophilia in regards to age but didn’t carry the genetic component, rather a far more dangerous component I’ll explain). The primary attraction was actually based on easy mental manipulation, i.e. a lack of emotional development or efficacy of ego. But this didn’t apply either. I am attracted to strong, confident partners who know what they want. Remember, she pursued me.
So, from a clinical stand point, none of the labels fit. However, legally a crime was committed without a psychological trigger associated with any definable “philia” at all.
An offense that requires registration occurred but the purpose of the registry is to protect against predatory (clinical) issues.
In fact, upon release on parole, I had no restrictions. The pale officer took it upon themselves to assign restrictions themselves despite psychological evaluation and release without them.
That life is harder now is undeniable. That I get hit with the pedophile label is unavoidable. That’s life. I was convicted of a criminal offense and have to deal with the consequences. As do my family members. Including my children. Despite be extremely qualified in my career field I have great difficulty find meaningful our fulfilling enjoyment. I met a wonderful and beautiful woman and married again. I rebuilt a life. But the continued belittling and ostracizing became more than she could handle.
When does the spirit of the law and actual psychological evaluation come into play?
If a clinical diagnosis isn’t possible or doesn’t fit, should labels be considered libel? Or slander? Or defamation of character?
It’s recognized that a person can kill another person and not commit murder. Can a person commit a sex offense and not be a sex offender?