I am attempting to sell a car, the title of which was issued by a Texas courthouse. I am attempting to sell this car to a fellow Californian, in california.
I am the original buyer of this car. (Not counting the dealership I bought it from.)
I bought the car new.
Upon paying off the car, I was mailed the title. On the back of the title there are spaces for me and a buyer of the car to sign, indicating that I have sold that person this car.
However, at the top of the title is a detachable portion which says:
“Upon sale of this vehicle, the purchaser must apply for a new title within 20 working days unless the vehicle is purchased by a dealer. Until a new title is issued, the vehicle record will continue to reflect the owner’s name listed on the current title.”
The person I am selling the car to does not speak English well, and I have decided to try to navigate the paperwork for him.
The form to apply for a title is dubbed 130-u. (You can google that to refer to it if you wish.) Upon looking at that form, I am confused about something. It says
This seems strange to me for a couple of reasons.
First of all, the “county where the sale occured” is Orange County, California. This is also “the applicant’s county of residence.” Can it really be that a Texas title can be obtained from a California courthouse?
Second, this passage tells me that the applicant (the purchaser) must send a payment for the title, and registration and sales tax fees, along with the application. I was under the impression that I (the seller) am responsible for sales taxes. But this seems to imply that it is the buyer who is responsible. Is it true, then, that the seller must send the following:
-Sales Tax
-Registration Fee
-Title payment
to a California courthouse in order to have a new Texas title issued?
-FrL-