I don’t get it. Are you saying that defensive gun uses might not have required the use of a gun at all (waving a gun at a burglar that would have run regardless of whether or not you had a gun)? Are you saying that these may not be defensive gun uses might not have been used defensively at all, that the national criminal victimizations urvey is picking up a bunch of false positives?
I’m just trying to get some numbers to make a cost benefit analysis and you seem to be telling me that we can only count the gun deaths and injuries but we cannot even try to estimate any benefits that guns may have because we can’t get enough certainty on the number of DGU so we don’t put anything at all in the benefits column.
We have not proven that guns are a net negative and yet everyone seems to assume that they are. All we know is that there is an correlation between households that have guns and households where people get murdered. There is no causal link between legally owning a gun and increasing your risk of death by 300%. I suspect that there might be some increase of risk of death (certainly accidental death seems to be causally connected to owning a gun and there is probably a link between gun owership and sppousal murder) but these are not the things getting sussed out. I don’t know if its because its too hard to suss out these numbers or because the folks doing these studies are looking for confirmation of preset conclusions so they look for statistics taht will support ther conclusion.
So what does association mean? Does it mean correlation or something more than that?
Well I am not a scientist. But I can see that they are trying to present correlation as causation here.
Its not that we don’t understand how to conduct science, its that we suspect they are conductingn the science in a way to achieve conclusions that they can present as support for their biases. The bias is clear from the statements and interviews and when they conclude that there is a correlation between guns and murder ina household and the media predictably reports on it as if there is a causal link, it is hard to believe that they didn’t know that the media would present their correlation as if it was causation.
When the limitations sections says that they cannot determine if the gun ownership is causing the increased risk of death or is the increased risk of death is causing the gun ownership (as one study did), then what probative value do it provide to say that households with guns also have a higher murder rate?
Your entire argument seems to revolve around namecalling and I wonder if you can even formulate an argument that doesn’t ask the reader to assume that your opposition is stupid. There has to be a latin phrase for that sort of argument.
So has the media been reporting this conclusion as is there is a correlation or as if there is some sort of causation?
I don’t dispute that there is inf act a correlation between households taht own guns and households where a murder occurs. I don’t even dispute that households that own guns are going to experience a higher rate of gun homicides than households that don’t own guns. I dispute that if the average citizen goes out and buys a gun, they have just increased their chances of someone in their home being murdered by 300%. And that is the way these studies are being presented to the general public by media outlets. That is the way these studies are frequntly presented in arguments on this board.
Funny, I feel the same way about gun grabbers. I have changed position on a few things since this debate started, can you say the same?
Where do I repeatedly contend that gun violence is not a public health issue that the CDC has no business examining? I have said that the CDC has been biased and funded biased research. I have said that this bias is why their gun research was restricted. I have said that there are other government agencies that can fund this sort of research just as easily as the CDC. I may have said some other things too but I don’t think I said that the CDC shouldn’t be looking into gun violence.
Both the UK and Australia had much lower homicide rates before their respective gun bans because there simply weren’t that many guns around, criminals were not as well armed as ours are. If we banned guns today in the USA, our criminals would be just as well armed after the bana sbefore it and the law abiding citizens would be disarmed. I don’t see how the UK or Australia example makes a dent in that.
Hasn’t violent crime fallen to its lowest rate EVERYWHERE regardless of what happened with guns?