In another thread, my friend, soulmate, and sometimes nemesis (:)), SentientMeat, posted this:
I don’t think it’s a secret to anyone who’s been around here longer than two days that I’m a staunch libertarian, or classical liberal. Despite the perception from some that I’m a recalictrant lunatic, I didn’t just stumble on this philosophy one day and go, hey, that looks pretty weird, I think I’ll adopt it. Rather, it was over time, and through what I believe is a fairly thorough analysis (it is still ongoing), that I came to embrace the principle of noncoercion.
I’m certain the same is true of Sentient, and many others who defend the principle of majority rule. I know that, at least in his case, holding to this opposing principle is no more capricioius than my own. What I’m interested in in this thread is a discussion and debate about majoritarianism.
Let me be clear — NOT MAJORITARIANISM VERSUS LIBERTARIANISM, but majoritarianism in se. I don’t want this to become a “my system is better than yours” fiasco because, frankly, it is all in the end a matter of subjective choice. One man might be happier in a circumstance of complete chaos with no government at all and no rules, while another might be happier in a circumstance of complete authoritarianism and totalitarian government (especially if he is the governor!). Comparisons may be made for the purpose of clarification, but not for the purpose of changing the subject. There are already plenty of threads debating the merits of libertarianism. This is not one of them.
I can draw, and have drawn over the years, the theoretical underpinning of my philosophy, and I would like to hear the theoretical underpinning of yours. In fact, I have some specific questions that arise from Sentient’s quote above. And again, “Well, how do you justify yours!?” will be considered nonresponsive and off-topic. Feel free to start another thread about libertarianism if you wish. Here, the topic is majoritarianism. Here is where I get to ask the probing questions and present the hypotheticals, while you defend.
I invite all who are up to the task to participate.
Question 1: What is the principle upon which majority rule has its ethical authority? It doesn’t have to have a name, like the NP. Just espouse it.
Question 2: How do you demarcate (if at all) between what the majority may impose upon the minority and what it may not? In Sentient’s quote above, the majority may force the minority to abandon its property and move to Somalia. May it also force the minority to, say, have sex with pigs? If not, why not? What is the principle that establishes how much authority the majority has? And be careful if you say that it is established by prudence or some other anthropic principle, because I will ask who determines what is prudent. And if you say the majority, then we are right back where we started. What is to prevent the majority from deciding that pig fucking is prudent?
Question 3: What is the guiding principle in the case of majority minorities? For example, suppose that a majority of people in, say, California, support the legalization of marijuana while an overall majority of people in the United States oppose it. Or another example, suppose that a majority of people in Boston support gay marriage while a majority of people in Massachusets oppose it. What happens here, of course, is that there are local minorities who are getting their way, and local majorities who are suppressed. The 25% (or whatever) of Californians who oppose legalizing pot have the political advantage over the 75% (or whatever) who support it. And the gay people in Boston, representing a majority of Bostonians, would like to get married but can’t. Who is to say (or more precisely, what principle is it that says) that people in Maine or Alabama have any business telling people in California what to do?
Question 4: I suspect that, based on limited prior discussions, part of the majority’s authority will be said to arise from a confidence that the majority will be temperate and wise. After all, they are trusted to elect the representatives and governors who will rule. And in general, all good things are ultimately traced back to the majority, like caring for the poor, for example. The majority of people advocate some sort of support system for the helpless among us. In fact, I don’t know that that can even be called a majority. I believe it is a supermajority. I have yet to encounter anyone who said, “Just let 'em all die.” (Jokes and projections of arbitrary inferences upon the advocacy of freedom aside.) My question is, if the majority is so wise, so fair, so temperate, and so concerned about the poor, why is it that they will not, acting on their own volition, see to the needs of the poor? I mean, if they are willing to spend billions of dollars putting into place massive public bureaucracies to oversee this task, why would they be unwilling to spend billions of dollars putting into place massive private agencies to oversee this task? It seems to me that the agent who can make his own laws and collect additional revenues whenever he pleases would be less responsive and accountable than the agent whose very livelihood depends upon pleasing his constituents and contributors. You might argue that elected officials depend similarly upon pleasing their consituencies, lest they fail to be reelected, but even if they evaporate, the slime of their bureaucracy will remain (apologies to Franz Kafka), and those who oversee its operations typically are not elected anyway, but are career agents and diplomats who draw checks no matter who is in office. But if the businessman fails to please his clients, then his business will close, and another, more responsive business with new operators, will rise to take its place. So, if the majority can be trusted to figure out who best represents their interests, why can’t they be trusted to represent their interests themselves? Why can’t it be, “Here, Peter, here’s a dollar for Paul.”? Why must it be, “Here, Peter, here’s the authority to take a dollar from me and give it to Paul.”?
Question 5: Directly pursuant to Sentient’s quote, upon what principle does a majority have an ethical holding over a geographical area? As Thomas Jefferson has said, “A geographical division… is a most fatal of all divisions, as no authority will submit to be governed by a majority acting merely on a geographical principle.” --Thomas Jefferson to Samuel H. Smith, 1821. FE 10:191. In other words, why are a hundred people allowed to tell ten people, “Here’s the way we’re going to do things, and if you don’t like it, move to Somalia.” I mean, for one thing, the Somalians might have something to say about that. But isn’t that sentiment eerily reminiscent of “America, love it or leave it”? Or the White Supremacist call for Blacks to “move back to Africa”? It seems to me that staying in America for the purpose of improving it expresses a love for it. And most Blacks who are here are not even from Africa, so how can they move “back”? Likewise, why should a man who has improved his property by his own labor and wits be forced to sell off that property or surrender it to government at a price determined to be fair by people who did not participate in its improvement? How will his memories of teaching his son to fish in the property’s pond, or teaching his daughter to ride horses in the property’s field be assigned a monetary worth? When he looks out over the land that his family has owned for generations, he does not see what the majority sees. He sees a whole lifetime of, well, life. All the majority sees is soil samples and neighborhood housing values. What ethical principle entitles the majority to displace this man and move him to Somalia — where he has not even one memory or one iota of investment in time or labor — simply because he does not wish to bend to their demands? What entitles them to draw a polygon on a map and say, “Within these boundaries, our voices rule.”?
Naturally, more questions might arise based on responses.